eight bits, on 29 June 2012 - 08:39 PM, said:
I do think that John's reference to the Psalm may rebut an ancient Osiris criticism. I "look past" the Horus "resurrection" criticism because, like Jairus' daughter and unlike conventional readings of Jesus, there is some doubt in the Horus story about whether the returnee actuallly died or just seemed that way to a frantic parent. In this case, I "looked past" it without adequately looking where I was going instead.
It's been argued that Horus may have just been on the verge of Death rather than actually dead. My understanding of hieroglyphics is pretty much non-existent, so I can only argue from translations and secondary sources.
Budge's translation, for example, seems to indicate fairly clearly that Horus was dead.
"it is wholly impossible for the Boat of Ra to travel across the sky whilst Horus is lying dead"
On John:
John 19
36 These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: “Not one of his bones will be broken,”
37 and, as another scripture says, “They will look on the one they have pierced.”
The first scripture referenced is generally thought to refer to Psalm 34:
19 The righteous person may have many troubles,
but the Lord delivers him from them all;
20 he protects all his bones,
not one of them will be broken.
It's not exactly stellar Messianic prophecy. It's talking about a righteous person, and whilst Jesus was undoubtedly portrayed as righteous - it's not very Messiah specific.
So did John emphasize the no broken bones to differentiate the tale of Jesus from Osiris? Possibly, but the whole crucifixion would have been enough, I'd imagine, regardless of whether or not the Romans had broken his ankles. It's not like they dismembered his body and buried the parts in different places.
My initial gut feel is that John was just trying to link as much as possible about the events of the Crucifixion to the Old Testament, and that it's probably just a happy coincidence.