Abramelin, on 05 July 2010 - 11:53 AM, said:
OK, just a couple from memory:
Nep Teun = 'nephew Teun' = >> Neptune
Krekalander (in Dutch 'Griekenland"') = Greece. One explanation has to do with 'kreken' (=creeks, or brooks), another with an ancient word for old woman, 'Greche'.
Crete << the inhabitants screamed (scream = 'kreet') when they saw the sailors sail by.
Nehellenia>> 'hell' = bright light. But Hell/Hall/Hulda/Holle is an ancient name for the north sea.
But he most important linguistic clue something is fishy about the OLB is the word order in a sentence: it's too modern.
There are really ancient Frisian documents online (I think it's the laws made by Radboud or Rutger) from 1400 years ago that are totally unreadable if you don't know how to speak old Frisian.
Qoais, you speak English. Now try to read ancient Anglo-Saxon; the word order (verb, object subject, adjectives, and so on) is totally different form present day english.
Now maybe you say that the last version of the OLB dates from 1200 AD, but I doubt you could read those manuscripts dating form that time; there are still people who have great trouble reading Shakespeare's work in it's original spelling and word order, even though it's from a much more recent time.
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Thanks for that. I may just add that the Afrikaans (evolved from Dutch) for "Nef" (cousin ) is still "neef", "Krete" is still the same and "Krekaland" is "Griekeland".
You are obviously acquainted with Ottema's views, but for those who are not, I would like to post the following extract:
"The language is very old Fries, still older and purer than the Fries Rjuchtboek or old Fries laws, differing from that both in form and spelling, so that it appears to be an entirely distinct dialect, and shows that the locality of the language must have been (as it was spoken) between the Vlie and the Scheldt.
The style is extremely simple, concise, and unembarrassed, resembling that of ordinary conversation, and free in the choice of words. The spelling is also simple and easy, so that the reading of it does not involve the least difficulty, and yet with all its regularity, so unrestricted, that each of the separate writers who have worked at the book
has his own peculiarities, arising from the changes in pronunciation in a long course of years, which naturally must have happened, as the last part of the work is written five centuries after the first.
I will conclude with one more remark regarding the language. Those who have been able to take only a superficial view of the manuscripts have been struck by the polish of the language, and its conformity with the present Friesland language and Dutch. In this they seem to find grounds for doubting the antiquity of the manuscript.
But, I ask, is, then, the language of Homer much less polished than that of Plato or Demosthenes? And does not the greatest portion of Homer’s vocabulary exist in the Greek of our day?It is true that language alters with time, and is continually subject to slight variations, owing to which language is found to be different at different epochs. This change in the language in this manuscript accordingly gives ground for important observations to philologists. It is not only that of the eight writers who have successively worked at the book. Each is recognizable by slight peculiarities in style, language and spelling; but more particularly between the two parts of the book, between which an interval of more than two centuries occurs,
a striking difference of the language is visible, which shows what a slowly progressive regulation it has undergone in that period of time. As a result of these considerations, I arrive at the conclusion that I cannot find any reason to doubt the authenticity of these writings. They cannot be forgeries. In the first place, the copy of 1 256 cannot be. Who could have at that time forged anything of that kind? Certainly no one. Still less any one at an earlier date. At a later date a forgery is equally impossible, for the simple reason that no one was acquainted with the language. Except Grimm, Richthofen and Hettema, no one can be named sufficiently versed in that branch of philology, or who had studied the language so as to be able to write in it. And if one could have done so, there would have been no more extensive vocabulary at his service than that which the East Frisian laws afford. Therefore, in the centuries lately elapsed, the preparation of this writing was impossible. Whoever doubts this let him begin by showing where, when, by whom, and with what object such a forgery could be committed, and let him show in modern times the fellow of this paper, this writing, and this language."
Here is another lead in the OLB which I followed up in my book:
In the "Book of Adela’s followers", ch. XXIII (5-8)
"5. In the year 101 after the submersion of Aldland a people came out of the east. That people was driven by another. Behind us, in Twiskland, they fell into disputes, divided into two parties, and each went its own way. Of the one no account has come to us, but the other came in the back of our Skenland (Scandinavia), which was thinly inhabited, particularly the upper part."
Now the extract from my book:
" The Finnish language, which belongs to the Finno-Permic language group, is the most closely related language to Estonian and Hungarian although Hungary is geographically a fair distance (1200 kilometres) away. The Hungarian language belongs to the Ugric group which have developed in parallel with the Finno-Permic languages some 4000 years ago. The Finno-Permic and Ugric groups, both of the Uralic language family, would appear to have parted ways west of the Ural Mountains – precisely what the Oera Linda Book tells us and in an area which it calls "Twiskland". Neither of these language groups is related to the Indo-European languages.
The Hungarians still refer to themselves as "Magyar", a name which, according to the Oera Linda Book, goes back to more than 4000 years to what used to be a priestly order called the "Magyarar". Present-day scholars believe that the name Magyar might have been derived from the name or title Muageris or Mugel. This would then be the Oera Linda Book’s "Magy".
The Oera Linda Book mentions a dispute between two groups in Twiskland after which they separated. The one group migrated to Finland and the other group disappeared. It would be reasonable to assume that this second group eventually settled in the region of Hungary and further south into the Balkans and Greece. This split is precisely what researchers find in their studies and would answer the Frisians’ 4000 year old question as to what happened to the second group."
As with all the other dates and post-19th century discoveries that I have previously mentioned, here we find some more information that was not known in the 19th century.
The main reason that people doubt the authenticity of the Oera Linda Book is that it just seems too fantastic and too far removed from the picture that was embedded in our collective
minds by historians. Yet, apart from the OLB, we have nothing about the period which the OLB describes. We have even less about Plato's Atlantis but it does not prevent people from accepting that there may be some truth to it. When it comes to the OLB, however, we reject it outright.
You label yourself as a skeptic. By definition you, therefore, do not merely accept everything that people says but would rather analyse a situation and derive at your own conclusions. How is it then that you just accept the "Hoax Hypothesis" without questioning it? Is this not "selective skepticism" or are you afraid to go against "the establishment" in the Netherlands for fear of ridicule?
As I have mentioned before, the evidence supporting the OLB's authenticity is so overwhelming and, in my view, much more than the "evidence" and speculation that support the "hoax theory".
One last question: Do we have any evidence in Haverschmid's (a.k.a Piet Paaltjens) history where he ever wrote about or displayed an exceptional knowledge of history in antiquaty?