Ben Masada, on 22 May 2012 - 08:33 PM, said:
Well, let me prove to you that my assertion about Paul is not unfounded: First of all, according to the thread, the exception to the rule that one cannot serve two masters applied to Paul only and to no other, according to Romans 7:25. Chapter 8 makes that clear that, no one else could serve God and flesh at the same time.
I'm sorry, but when I read 7:25 that is not at all the impression I get. Paul is making a statement that by following the mind he follows Christ and by following the flesh he follows sin. Chapter 8 then expands on this concept by explaining how there is no condemnation for those found in Jesus Christ (8:1). You are treating the end of chapter 7 and the start of chapter 8 as if Paul is ending one thought and beginning a new (though related) thought. Remember that there were originally no chapter/verse breakdowns in the text, this was put in for us as a reference tool. There is no logical reason to view 7:25 as a reference only to Paul and chapter 8 a reference to the rest of us.
Ben Masada, on 22 May 2012 - 08:33 PM, said:
Second, how do I suppose that Paul was a Hellenist Jew and never a Pharisee? According to Pharisaic policy, a Hellenist Jew would never be accepted into the Sect due to their moral looseness as it was blatant among Hellenists, including the Jewish ones. And then, because of Paul's gospel about Jesus as being too akin to the Greek myth of the demigod, which is the son of a god with an earthly woman. Let along the doctrine of life after death and consciousness in the Hades or world of the dead; you know, things of the realm of the Iliad of Homer.
Do not let youself be misled by his declaration that he was a Pharisee. He declared himself that he could be any thing according to the circumstances; a Jew among the Jews, a Gentile among the Gentiles, anything anywhere among all things. Then, he had a habit to lie too often. Given the evidences, we are safe to discard that he was a Pharisee.
First, the Greek idea of a demigod is that the product is a half-man/half-god creature, neither fully human or fully God. Jesus is not a half-breed. He was fully 100% human, and he was fully and 100% divine. Jesus' birth is not like any Greek idea, but finds its roots in Judaism. For the rest, it depends on whether you believe Paul when he says he was a Pharisee. You are misquoting Paul if you wish to cast aspersions on his "to the Jew I became a Jew, to the Gentile I became a Gentile" speech. This is not an indication that we can dismiss his claims of being a Pharisee. That you even use this argument shows you are willing to stretch way beyond the text, or you simply don't understand the text. As of this moment, I'm not sure which it is.
Ben Masada, on 22 May 2012 - 08:33 PM, said:
You mention above that "there is no indication that one can serve God in the spirit and sin in the flesh." It means that you either do not understand Rom. 7:25 or refuse to, perhaps, due to the apparent contradiction.
Or perhaps YOU don't understand Romans 7:25???
Ben Masada, on 22 May 2012 - 08:33 PM, said:
Regarding my assertion that Paul's thorn in the flesh was his struggle against repressed homosexual feelings is based on the fact that it was a sinful condition which he could not get rid of, and anything else you can think of, cannot be taken as sinful. It is due also to his attitude against women, as he would advise single men not to take a woman in marriage and stay as he was, free of women. This is absolutely an un-Jewish attitude, when marriage is rather a commandment. (I Cor. 7:8) This is, for lack of a better judgment, a homosexual attitude. So much so that, once, in the synagogue of Antioch, a group of women raised such a bitter persecution against him and Banabas that Paul got so upset that he decided that from then on, he would finally go to the Gentiles. (Acts 13:50,51) But then, he reconsidered his rash decision and went to the synagogue of Iconium. (Acts 14:1)
Paul suggests that men remain unmarried, but he also says that if a man wishes to marry then they are free to do so, they are not acting wrong. For the record, Paul's comments equally apply to women, not just men. You are stretching if you think this is a reference to Paul being homosexual. Tell me, if Paul was gay and sinned in the flesh, why would he begin the book of Romans with the following statement:
For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature; and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error. And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a debased mind to do what ought not to be done. They were filled with all manner of unrighteousness, evil, covetousness, malice. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, maliciousness. They are gossips, slanderers, haters of God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless. Though they know God's decree that those who practice such things deserve to die, they not only do them but give approval to those who practice them.
~ Romans 1:26-32
~ Regards, PA