dside, on 15 June 2012 - 10:16 PM, said:
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No, the whole Law is a pattern for the Christ. Man gives his most perfect beast for atonement. God gives his perfect Son for the salvation of all. Afterall, Christ had to fulfill the whole Law? Right?
Wrong! If I were to agree with you, I would be admitting contradictions not only in the Tanach but also in the NT. First of all, according to the Scriptures, no individual is supposed to be sacrificed to redeem another. (Exo. 32:33; 2 Chron. 25:4; Jer. 31:34; Eze. 18:20) Beasts were not adopted as a commandment to atone for nobody sins but to prophetically point to some fulfillment in the future, as the prophecy of the Scapegoat, which I welcome you to read my thread on "The Prophecy of the Scapegoat." As a fourth item, if Jesus was conscious of his supposed mission to die to redeem Mankind, he would not have prayed for three times in the Gethsemane asking not to die on the cross, since, as he himself declared, that it was not his will to do so. (Mat. 26:39; Mark 14:36; Luke 22:42) Last, but not least, Jesus was not perfect as sin is concerned. He broke the Golden Rule which says "Not to do unto others what we would not like they did unto us." He whipped and caused financial damage to the money changers in the front area of the Temple. (John 2:15) If Jesus was charismatic and with Divine powers, he could have solved that problem with a stern glance of his countenance and not hurt his neighbor in order to get his message through.
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Well, what sacrifice would the Son of God give for atonement? With a filthy beast? How does the Christ fulfill the atonement DEMANDED by the Law? Hmmm... sure beats me (sarcasm).
To answer this question of yours, the real Jesus, who was a Jewish man, believed in the forgiveness of sins through the prophetic method of repentance and obedience to the Law, according to Isaiah 1:18,19. That's the only way to set things right with God, so that our sins, from scarlet red become as white as snow. But hey, you must be talking about the Christ of Paul, who acted against the Word of God.
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Well, if He lives without sin, then there is no requirement of a blood atonement YET to fulfill the WHOLE LAW... there is no forgiveness of sins without a propitiary offering... AND yet also the whole Law NEEDS to be fulfilled including the blood atonement. Blood atonement is an absolutely necessary component of the Law, otherwise the WHOLE Law remains unfulfilled.
As I have proved above, Jesus did not live without sin. But I agree with you that there is no need of blood atonement to live by the Law. Only obedience to it. However, there is no truth to say that there is no forgiveness of sins without propitiatory offering. There is and I give you two examples: First is the one already given in Isaiah 1:18.19. The second is that the Jews spent 70 years in exile in Babylon and never a single animal sacrifice was performed. Nevertheless, at the end of the exile, the transgression that had caused the exile had stopped, the sin had ended, and guilt had been expiated? Do you have any idea how that happened? That's proof that the main function of animal sacrifices was not for the forgiveness of sins. Show me where it is written that blood atonement is an absolutely necessary component of the Law. Have you ever heard that "laws are to be broken?" A transgression of the Law is forgivable with repentance and return to obedience, as long as one does not reject the Law. There is a big difference between breaking and transgressing the Law.
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Now, this Israel/Scapegoat nonsense you keep dribbling has absolutely no scriptural grounds whatsoever.
Now, go ahead and read my thread about "The Prophecy of the Scapegoat." Perhaps you will learn where are the Biblical grounds for what I am talking about.
Ben
Edited by Ben Masada, 19 June 2012 - 05:53 PM.