Quote
Why Is It So Important What He Was Wearing?? Just Curious ..
For me, what intrigues is that
Mark doesn't say. He's telling the story in a realistic way, and he includes a certain amount of detail. So, why use awkward grammatical constructions to avoid this subject? Why not just spill it?
Maybe interesting to more people is that a lot of folks argue that all four of the Gospels depict the Romans as "more fair" to Jesus than the Jews. Usually, they point to the contrasting trial scenes, The Temple kangaroo court versus Pilate's sober inquiry. The reasons offered for why the Gospels do that are payback that most Jews didn't just accept Jesus as their Messiah, plus an ongoing political need to gain toleration and favor from later Roman authorities.
But the earlier Gospels,
Mark and
Matthew, have this scene which is inflammatory and unambigously anti-Roman. The write-up of this incident was the Abu Ghraib pics of its time. Then comes
Luke, and it's 180 degrees on Roman responsibility. It'd be like the United States saying, "Yes, those are nasty pix, but that wasn't us. Those were taken while Saddam Hussein was still running the prison." And
John makes it look like Pilate was doing Jesus a favor - maybe that nasty Jewish mob will grow some compassion and relent.
So, my own opinion is that this incident helps clarify the charges of Gospel anti-semitism and Roman pandering. I've always thought that
both trials were depicted as unjust, in all four Gospels. And no matter how you slice it, Pilate is shown as a wuss who can't make up his mind, and it wouldn't matter much if he did make it up, because the mob is calling the shots anyway.
But the abuse of a broken man by Roman soldiers in uniform is unambiguous. Roman occupation is unjust, arbitrary and brutal. That indictment would have resonated in a lot of places besides Jerusalem. Then the Roman atrocity disappears from the later Gospels.
So, I think this is the smoking gun for charges that the Gospel writers pandered to Roman sensibilities. Not all the Gospels, and the church obviously didn't rewrite the older versions, but something like pandering does seem to have occurred. Alternatively,
Luke had it right, and the early writers falsely pinned the incident on the Romans for reasons that made sense while Jerusalem was still a functioning Jewish city under Roman rule, direct or through puppet-kings.
What do you think?