You are just doing back-flips to deny the obvious. They used feminine words to describe a feminine aspect. Any child confronted by the holy spirit would sense it to have a feminine quality so the authors of the bible presented it in that way for that exact reason.
I have been filled with the Holy Spirit on occasion, and not once have I ever felt the feminine aspect you state is there... not even a male aspect either... I just felt the extreme presence of Holiness that left me on my back. I sensed God.
And I don't do backflips, what I do is study the Hebrew and learn from those who know it.
Does it precede ancient Mesopotamia and Sumeria?
Because that is where it originates from. As such 4000 B.C. is being conservative... India is 3500 B.C. almost 500 years later. The Vedas, which the religious texts you are indirectly referring to are of comparable age to the bible though...
The difference is that they speak of events from a human memory and as such have as much fact as myth... I don't believe it to be the case with the bible. In may ways they actually complement one another as religious works.
Edited by Jor-el, 10 July 2013 - 09:12 PM.