Jesus, The Imperfect Beacon--For two thousand years Christians have alleged that Jesus of Nazareth is God incarnate, the sinless being, the embodiment of perfection.
1Pet. 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
Isa. 53:9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
Yet, the New Testament has many statements and acts by Jesus which prove the contrary. He, like Paul, repeatedly made false statements and inaccurate prophecies. Here are a few examples:
John 7:8-10[KJV] Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast: for my time is not yet full come. When he had said these words unto them, he abode still in Galilee. But when his brethren were gone up, then went he also up unto the feast, not openly, but as it were in secret.
John 7:8-10 RSV Go to the festival yourselves. I am not going to this festival, for my time has not yet fully come." After saying this, he remained in Galilee. But after his brothers had gone to the festival, then he also went, not publicly but as it were in private.
Jesus broke his promise[word] by going up secretly after saying he wouldn't.[/right]
John 7:3-4 NIV Jesus' brothers said to him, "You ought to leave here and go to Judea, so that your disciples may see the miracles you do. no one who wants to become a public figure acts in secret. Since you are doing these things, show yourself to the world."
Jesus' brothers wanted him to go to the festival (the Feast of Tabernacles) and publicly display Himself to the people of Galilee. For this reason Jesus said in verse 8 "my time has not yet come". Not because He wouldn't go to the festival, but because He wouldn't go "publicly" ie to be seen and revered.
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In John 13:38 jesus said: "...Verily, verily, I say unto thee, The c*** shall not crow, till thou (Peter-ed) hast denied me thrice."
And yet, what actually occurred is shown in Mark 14:66-68
"And as Peter was beneath in the palace, there cometh one of the maids of the high priest: And when she saw Peter warming himself, she looked upon him, and said, And thou also wast with Jesus of Nazareth. But he denied, saying, I know not, neither understand I what thou sayest. And he went out into the porch; and the c*** crew."
According to Jesus' prophecy the c*** was not to speak until after the third denial, not after the first.
The corresponding accounts in Matthew, Luke and John say nothing of this first rooster crow.
In addition, only some manuscripts from Mark make mention of this. But perhaps Mark did get his facts wrong in this instance...
Whatever the case, the point is that Jesus predicted Peter's denial, showing Himself to be able to see the future.
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© Jesus told the thief on the cross: Luke 23:43 "... Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise."
This prophecy could not have been kept unless Jesus went to heaven that day, in which case he would not have been buried for three days.
Only His body was buried. He, as in Jesus' spirit, did go to heaven. It was only three days later that He was "physically" resurrected.
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(D) Jesus told a man: Mark 8:34 "... Whosoever will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me."
This statement was made early in his ministry. Yet, the cross could not have become a Christian symbol until after the Crucifixion. There would be nothing to pick up. This utterance would have made no sense whatever to the man being addressed.
None-the-less, the people still knew what crucifixion was. When someone follows Jesus, they must be prepared to crucify (kill) their old way of life. I fail to see why this is not a valid statement...
Additionally, this post was in relation to the statement "Jesus must be perfect (which we know he was not...)". There's a "contradictions to the Bible thread somewhere else. It'd be good if you could confine your quotes to verses that show (to you at least) how Jesus was not perfect.
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(E) In Matthew 5:22 he said:
Matt. 5:22 "...but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire."
Yet, Jesus repeated called people fools: Matt. 23:17,19 "Ye fools and blind..." Luke 11:40 "Ye fools,..."
Matthew 5:21-22 "You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, 'Do not murder', and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment. But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment."
Jesus was giving this sermon on the Mount in direct opposition to the legalistic attitude that the Pharisees had towards the Bible. It was ok to hate your brother, as long as you didn't kill him...
The distinction was being made between the
letter of the law and the spirit of the law, that is to say, hate=murder in God's eyes. When Jesus said "You fools", he did not do it out of hate for his listeners, but rather out of love - to point out what they were doing wrong
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(F) In Matthew Jesus said: Matt. 12:40 " For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."
Mark 15:37 and 15:42 show Jesus died on the day before the sabbath which would be Friday. Mark 16:9 and Matthew 28:1 show he allegedly rose sometime during Saturday night or Sunday morning. Friday afternoon to Sunday morning does not encompass three days and three nights. His prophecy failed.
The festival of Passover is also considered to be a Sabbath. Since Jesus was crucified at Passover, is it not reasonable to assume that the "day before the Sabbath" (Mark 15:42) was referring to the day before Passover, which could have been any day of the week.
It is only modern tradition that keeps the belief that Friday was the crucifixion.
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(G) John 3:13 Jesus falsely stated: "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven."
This verse is not only inaccurate historically as 2 Kings 2:11 shows: 2 Kings 2:11"...behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven." but also absurd on its face. If the son of man (Jesus-ed) is down here on earth speaking then how could he be in heaven.
Most theologians see John 3:13 as a prophecy of the future, the way He descended and the way in which He returned at the Ascension. And no one has done that except Jesus.
As to Jesus being both in heaven and on earth, I got just one word... Trinity.
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(H) And in Matthew 27:46 Jesus cried with a loud voice say: " Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
How could Jesus be Savior of all mankind when he couldn't even save himself. These aren't the words of a man who went to the Cross willingly to die for our sins. These are the words of a man who could think of a hundred places he would rather be. They certainly the words of someone who has the situation under control.
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?...
Jesus was quoting the opening verse of Psalm 22. This psalm was written by David, when he was hiding from Saul who was trying to kill him. David starts off by saying "my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" (Psalm 22:1). The Psalm ends however with David essentially saying "It looks like you've forsaken me, but I know better - you God, really are in control and have not forsaken me". And the important thing to note is that the people watching Jesus all knew the Old Testament (ok, maybe some of the Roman soldiers didn't, but everyone else would have). They were brought up with it. This Psalm (and its meaning) would have been the first thing to pop into their head.
"How could Jesus be Savior of all mankind when he couldn't even save himself" - is this implying that Jesus cannot be the Saviour because He died on the cross???
And of course there were a hundred places Jesus would have rather been. What's the point?
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In closing this month's commentary several contradictions are worthy of note. Joseph's father is Jacob in Matthew 1:16 but is Heli in Luke 3:23. David slew the men of 700 chariots of the Syrians and 40,000 horsemen according to 2 Samuel 10:18 while 1 Chron. 19:18 says it was the men of 7,000 chariots and 40,000 footmen. Solomon had 40,000 stalls of horses for his chariots in 1 Kings 4:26 while 2 Chron. 9:25 says it was 4,000 stalls.
Same point as before - this has nothing to do with Jesus being (or not being) perfect. If you really want answers, I suggest you read the "contradictions in the Bible" thread. These questions have all been answered there.
Until next time,
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