Ott Posted October 21, 2014 #5726 Share Posted October 21, 2014 (edited) Bedrvm, a word which appeared in no language until the 1500s or thereabouts You confuse language with written sources. Vampyra, which is derived from Upyr (ultimately from the Turkish 'Ubyr', Witch), and only developed into Vampire in fairly recent times. That etymology is far from certain. Lack of any spectacular events circa 2193/4 BC. That is disputable. The syntax is to modern. Says who? Cecrops is spelled 'Sekrops' when it should be with a K. So it is spelled right?! Cadiz is called Kaddik when the oldest name is Gadiera (and there just so happens to by a Frisian Katwijk, pronounced Kaddik, and it is also a common last name in the Netherlands...) The oldest accepted or known spelling does not have to be the actual oldest name. Kat-wijk is not the same as Kad-dijk. They are actually completely different names. If this is the best 'evidence' you have, I rest my case. (edit: answer to SeKrops argument) Edited October 21, 2014 by Othar Winis Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 21, 2014 #5727 Share Posted October 21, 2014 "You confuse language with the facts" Please stick to the facts. The fact is that you will not find in any language anything resembling Bedroom prior to the 16th century. You will find other words, it's not as if there is some gap in our knowledge to the word used prior to the 16th century in literature- we know the words, and they were totally different. "That etymology is far from certain." Then please, enlighten me. Because the fact is that Vampyre only appears circa the 18th century. The earliest form WAS Upyr. And the Turkic word (the Turks being a heavy influence on the Slavs as you doubtless know) WAS Ubyr. What etymology do YOU propose? "That is disputable." Again, enlighten me. "Says who?" The word order is Modern Dutch. And on the other one, a glance at the Wikipedia article will tell you the Ancient Greek is Kekrops. The Greeks didn't have hard Cs- only when it was transcribed into modern language was it written that way, and presumably when the OLB authors looked in there sources, they saw it spelled 'Cecrops', and, not knowing it was a hard C, spelled it 'Sekrops'. "The oldest accepted or known spelling does not have to be the actual oldest name." Gadeira is totally different, and it was the Bronze Age name for the city. Quite the linguistic shenanigans for it to go from "Kaddik" to "Gaddik" to "Gaddirk" to "Gaddir" to "Gadeira", and then from there to "Gades" and, would you look at that, it's nearly reverted into it's original form, Cadiz? That's quite a leap and violation of Ocham's Razor. Kat-wijk is not the same as Kad-dijk. They are actually completely different names. "If this is the best 'evidence' you have, I rest my case." It's not all. I feel like it wouldn't be very productive to just go back through the old thread and repost arguments that you didn't do a good job of addressing, but if you wish, I will. But now, I ask you; what is YOUR overwhelming evidence that the OLB isn't a Nationalist Fantasy? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 21, 2014 #5728 Share Posted October 21, 2014 On your edit; it should be Kekrops. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 21, 2014 #5729 Share Posted October 21, 2014 The MIDDLE Sea, interpreted most often as the Med, is to the SOUTH of Texland, Friesland and Magna Frisia. So why is it called the Middle Sea in the OLB? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 21, 2014 #5730 Share Posted October 21, 2014 While I'm sure you have an answer for this one, how do you reconcile with Frederik Muller's assessment? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 21, 2014 #5731 Share Posted October 21, 2014 Why does tHe word Alligator appear in the OLB? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5732 Share Posted October 22, 2014 As to whether or not the Frisian almanacs recieved there dates from. Other manuscripts/ folk legends; Halley of comet fame calculated the year of the flood to be 2194.4 BCE. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5733 Share Posted October 22, 2014 176 pages to go! I'll be so happy when I finish the old thread.... I've been reading it on and off for years now. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ott Posted October 22, 2014 #5734 Share Posted October 22, 2014 While I'm sure you have an answer for this one, how do you reconcile with Frederik Muller's assessment? The answer is in my video of which you said: But your video didn't tell me anything I didn't already know... I have wasted enough time again here. Goodbye. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5735 Share Posted October 22, 2014 The only video of yours I watched was Frisones vs. Fryas, which only talked about the invasion of Frisia as wel las some old maps thereof... I think you may be thinking of another video, mate. Calm down, and why won't you address the rest of my questions? Why only one? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5736 Share Posted October 22, 2014 As to whether or not the Frisian almanacs recieved there dates from. Other manuscripts/ folk legends; Halley of comet fame calculated the year of the flood to be 2194.4 BCE. Dang, the editing period is short.Halley didn't date it to then, however the Masoretic Bible did. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5737 Share Posted October 22, 2014 The OLB etymology for the Angles is find only in the OLB... and a book published ten years beforehand. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5738 Share Posted October 22, 2014 Well, isn't this a doozy; apparently, in Norway, an inscription in Linear B was found in the 80s.... dating to circa 1700 BC. Seems... odd since the Minoans would have so recently learned Jol script, and not had that much time to corrupt it, and yet, it looks nothing like Jol Script? http://jarnaes.wordpress.com/1-minoan-crete-linear-a/ Not only that, earliest example of Linear A comes from circa 2100 BC from Potters Marks in Lahun, Egypt. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Van Gorp Posted October 22, 2014 #5739 Share Posted October 22, 2014 The OLB etymology for the Angles is find only in the OLB... and a book published ten years beforehand. And this one? Look at the end. P.A.F. van Veen en N. van der Sijs (1997), Van Dale Etymologisch woordenboek Engels [van Engeland] {Engelsch 1278} < engels English, oudengels (A)englisc, van Angle, Engle [de stam der Angelen], door de Romeinen Angli, enk. Anglus, genoemd, afkomstig uit Angul [een gebied in Sleeswijk dat haakvormig is] (oudengels angul [vishaak]). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 22, 2014 #5740 Share Posted October 22, 2014 And this one? Look at the end. P.A.F. van Veen en N. van der Sijs (1997), Van Dale Etymologisch woordenboek Engels [van Engeland] {Engelsch 1278} < engels English, oudengels (A)englisc, van Angle, Engle [de stam der Angelen], door de Romeinen Angli, enk. Anglus, genoemd, afkomstig uit Angul [een gebied in Sleeswijk dat haakvormig is] (oudengels angul [vishaak]). I don't speak Dutch, but from my Google Translate, it says that it refers to the GEOGRAPHICAL REGION called Angul, not fishing with Angled Hooks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Van Gorp Posted October 22, 2014 #5741 Share Posted October 22, 2014 (edited) I don't speak Dutch, but from my Google Translate, it says that it refers to the GEOGRAPHICAL REGION called Angul, not fishing with Angled Hooks. Yes idd, the geographical region called Angul and Angul is referred to as coming from oudengels angul [vishaak]). Oldenglish fishinghook. So Angle is just the fishinghook till there it seems to agree, whether it is thought to be the region shaped like it or like OLB says people using it. And Angle comes then very logically from the word 'Hengel' (in both cases), so OLB's etymology of the fishinghook is not strange at all but direct and clear. You find it over the top that in OLB one chooses to refer it as if they use the fishinghook instead of the land shaped like it? Imo it's just a slight difference where etymologists are not certain about right now, 50-50 % chance. What is not said that clearly by the mostly used etymology's is that Hengel (Angel) is the root for Angle/Angul, OLB does. Edited October 22, 2014 by Van Gorp 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Van Gorp Posted October 23, 2014 #5742 Share Posted October 23, 2014 It must be my tendency, but that kind of connections triggers some other explanations for fe The Angles, as bringers of messages. They 'hang' a message for the ones receptive for it. But that we can consider just as personal reflection :-) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 23, 2014 #5743 Share Posted October 23, 2014 Yes idd, the geographical region called Angul and Angul is referred to as coming from oudengels angul [vishaak]). Oldenglish fishinghook. So Angle is just the fishinghook till there it seems to agree, whether it is thought to be the region shaped like it or like OLB says people using it. And Angle comes then very logically from the word 'Hengel' (in both cases), so OLB's etymology of the fishinghook is not strange at all but direct and clear. You find it over the top that in OLB one chooses to refer it as if they use the fishinghook instead of the land shaped like it? Imo it's just a slight difference where etymologists are not certain about right now, 50-50 % chance. What is not said that clearly by the mostly used etymology's is that Hengel (Angel) is the root for Angle/Angul, OLB does. I don't find it over the top- just funny how the one other proposition of that particular (that they are named for fishing hooks) etymology is found in a book published ten years before the publication of the OLB. Not damning, but interesting. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Van Gorp Posted October 23, 2014 #5744 Share Posted October 23, 2014 I don't find it over the top- just funny how the one other proposition of that particular (that they are named for fishing hooks) etymology is found in a book published ten years before the publication of the OLB. Not damning, but interesting. True. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abramelin Posted October 23, 2014 Author #5745 Share Posted October 23, 2014 Why does tHe word Alligator appear in the OLB? Because the writer confused the West-Indies with the East-Indies/India, lol. No alligators in India & Pakistan,alas. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abramelin Posted October 23, 2014 Author #5746 Share Posted October 23, 2014 Well, isn't this a doozy; apparently, in Norway, an inscription in Linear B was found in the 80s.... dating to circa 1700 BC. Seems... odd since the Minoans would have so recently learned Jol script, and not had that much time to corrupt it, and yet, it looks nothing like Jol Script? http://jarnaes.wordp...crete-linear-a/ Not only that, earliest example of Linear A comes from circa 2100 BC from Potters Marks in Lahun, Egypt. Yes, I guess you really have to read the whole thread because that has been posted before. Btw, in the German Bight they found amber seals with Linear A letters written on them, and Minoan ship's utensils. Age: around 1100 BCE. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abramelin Posted October 23, 2014 Author #5747 Share Posted October 23, 2014 The OLB etymology for the Angles is find only in the OLB... and a book published ten years beforehand. And if I am right, then the OLB suggests that they became the Batavians later on: http://www.unexplained-mysteries.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=227240&st=4005#entry4779992 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abramelin Posted October 23, 2014 Author #5748 Share Posted October 23, 2014 (edited) Evidence against it? Lets see... Bedrvm, a word which appeared in no language until the 1500s or thereabouts Vampyra, which is derived from Upyr (ultimately from the Turkish 'Ubyr', Witch), and only developed into Vampire in fairly recent times. Lack of any spectacular events circa 2193/4 BC. The syntax is to modern. Cecrops is spelled 'Sekrops' when it should be with a K. Cadiz is called Kaddik when the oldest name is Gadiera (and there just so happens to by a Frisian Katwijk, pronounced Kaddik, and it is also a common last name in the Netherlands...) You forgot to mention a big one.... It's the part in the OLB about Jes-us, Buda (OLB spelling) and Fo. "Fo" was another name for Jes-us (like "Buda" also was, and again according to the OLB), and is explained as meaning "false". Yes, that is indeed what it means.... in French !! "Fo" is the way someone from the Netherlands would write "faux". About that "French Connection": http://oeralinda.blo...ection -1806 AD . Edited October 23, 2014 by Abramelin 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 23, 2014 #5749 Share Posted October 23, 2014 Yes, I guess you really have to read the whole thread because that has been posted before. Btw, in the German Bight they found amber seals with Linear A letters written on them, and Minoan ship's utensils. Age: around 1100 BCE. I was re-posting. As I said to Otharus, I don't feel it's very productive to repost evidence, but if he insists....I have under one hundred pages to go on the old thread, Btw. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flashman7870 Posted October 23, 2014 #5750 Share Posted October 23, 2014 You forgot to mention a big one.... It's the part in the OLB about Jes-us, Buda (OLB spelling) and Fo. "Fo" was another name for Jes-us (like "Buda" also was, and again according to the OLB), and is explained as meaning "false". Yes, that is indeed what it means.... in French !! "Fo" is the way someone from the Netherlands would write "faux". About that "French Connection": http://oeralinda.blo...ection -1806 AD . I was unaware of that! (though 'fo' is how a Frenchman would also pronounce faux)Glancing at the Latin Dictionary, the root word for 'faux' comes from fallax- which sounds nothing lke faux. What does Otharus say about that? 'You confuse language with writng'? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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