Possible evidence of the Exodus found in Jordan

[Piney]

37 minutes ago, Opus Magnus said:

If there was a Pharoah Thutmoses III then this was most likely Moses' adoptive father. By similarity of name also their dates are very close together at both in the 1400 BC. 

What part of "Israeli archaeologists, Egyptologists and Rabbinical scholars all agree Moses was fictional" don't you understand?

[+Pettytalk]

1 hour ago, Piney said:

What part of "Israeli archaeologists, Egyptologists and Rabbinical scholars all agree Moses was fictional" don't you understand?

Let me answer that. He doesn't understand the part you understand. And I can't say that I understand it either.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBcOoW9QgH4

 

[Opus Magnus]

The evidence is compelling otherwise.

Edited May 30, 2019 by Opus Magnus

[cormac mac airt]

7 hours ago, Coil said:

If the Jews were Canaanites in the past, why did the Jews kill the Canaanites after leaving Egypt, that is, their own people in order to settle in the promised land? The discrepancy goes so the Jews can not be Cananeans.

Canaan in general is the name of the land and the people who inhabited it were numerous. And the Jews start to be mentioned only during their stay in Egypt and formed as a people when they left it, therefore some separate people came to Egypt and to Canaan.

And if the Jews do not know/ lost or deliberately hide from whom they occurred, then there is some reason to hide it. Either their past is not so important as they took shape clearly when Moses brought them out of Egypt and received instructions from the fiery bush.

 

The Jews NEVER were in Egypt as slaves and NEVER killed the Canaanites. It was an origin story with no actual validity. 

cormac

[Piney]

25 minutes ago, Opus Magnus said:

The evidence is compelling otherwise.

What evidence???? 

[Piney]

6 minutes ago, cormac mac airt said:

The Jews NEVER were in Egypt as slaves and NEVER killed the Canaanites. It was an origin story with no actual validity. 

cormac

I just ignore the racist whistlehead. Even responding isn't worth it........

[Opus Magnus]

How about the name of the Pharoah and the dates are two points for Moses.

[Coil]

40 minutes ago, cormac mac airt said:

The Jews NEVER were in Egypt as slaves and NEVER killed the Canaanites. It was an origin story with no actual validity. 

cormac

I do not claim that they were slaves there, they just lived there and according to public information pharaoh forced them to work hard to keep their numbers from growing. According to the Bible, the Israelis lived there for 430 years. This is a significant period to multiply and take shape as a nation, and if it were not for Moses who knows what fate would have befallen them.
If we take an example from the life of bees, if there are too many bees in the hive, then some of the bees leave the hive. And if there are really more Jews than the Egyptians, then there is no need to strongly guess who exactly should go and both sides will benefit.

In addition, the Egyptians and the Jews (as well as the Arabs) are relatives of each other because they are descended from the same people, and it is no good to fight among themselves at that time.

 

 

[jaylemurph]

8 hours ago, Coil said:

If the Jews were Canaanites in the past, why did the Jews kill the Canaanites after leaving Egypt, that is, their own people in order to settle in the promised land? The discrepancy goes so the Jews can not be Cananeans.

Canaan in general is the name of the land and the people who inhabited it were numerous. And the Jews start to be mentioned only during their stay in Egypt and formed as a people when they left it, therefore some separate people came to Egypt and to Canaan.

And if the Jews do not know/ lost or deliberately hide from whom they occurred, then there is some reason to hide it. Either their past is not so important as they took shape clearly when Moses brought them out of Egypt and received instructions from the fiery bush.

 

...or you should stop mistaking a noted source of religious propaganda as a history book. 

—Jaylemurph 

[Piney]

51 minutes ago, Opus Magnus said:

How about the name of the Pharoah and the dates are two points for Moses.

Huh? 

Moshe was his name in the Tanakh and it gives no dates. 

[Opus Magnus]

7 minutes ago, Piney said:

Huh? 

Moshe was his name in the Tanakh and it gives no dates. 

Moshe means the same thing as Moses, it doesn't matter which name you use just a different language.

 

You might as well call the Pharoah Tut-Moshe.

Edited May 30, 2019 by Opus Magnus

[Piney]

2 minutes ago, Opus Magnus said:

Moshe means the same thing as Moses, it doesn't matter which name you use just a different language.

No **** Sherlock! But Moses is the Latin pronunciation. Not the Egyptian one.  So Thutmoses has nothing to do with Moses. 

Are you going to show some proof of the Exodus? Or are you going to keep repeating 

[Opus Magnus]

3 minutes ago, Piney said:

No **** Sherlock! But Moses is the Latin pronunciation. Not the Egyptian one.  So Thutmoses has nothing to do with Moses. 

Are you going to show some proof of the Exodus? Or are you going to keep repeating 

Fine, I'll be done talking to you but you don't seem to understand they have the same name. It's not like we're writing it out in Heiroglyphs here.

[Piney]

1 minute ago, Opus Magnus said:

Fine, I'll be done talking to you but you don't seem to understand they have the same name.

No, they don't. It just sounds the same and "mass comparison" is not a form of "research". 

[Orphalesion]

Hate to bring that up all the time when this comes up but... GAWD. If Exodus had any merit to it. Why does the whole terrible text insist on calling the pharaoh just "Pharaoh"? Why not mention his name? You'd think the name of the guy your nation supposedly rebelled against would be important, and fairly easy to remember.
Plus, during Thutmose III's regin (who's name has nothing to do with Moses) Egypt ruled over the area of modern day israel. So if Exodus was a real event and had taken place during Thutmose III's reign then that would mean Moses led his people out of Egypt....and into Egyptian controlled territory (slow clap) 

[Kenemet]

9 hours ago, Coil said:

If the Jews were Canaanites in the past, why did the Jews kill the Canaanites after leaving Egypt, that is, their own people in order to settle in the promised land? The discrepancy goes so the Jews can not be Cananeans.

a) they didn't get to Egypt in any great numbers until near the time of Cleopatra (300 BC)

b ) tribal warfare was rife in that region and various groups tried to exterminate each other simply because they were Someone Else.

[Kenemet]

5 hours ago, Opus Magnus said:

If there was a Pharoah Thutmoses III then this was most likely Moses' adoptive father. By similarity of name also their dates are very close together at both in the 1400 BC. 

No, wasn't him.  Also, the story in the Bible isn't plausible.  The man beating the slave would have been in violation of the religious law, "Ma'at" and therefore Moses would have been right in beating/killing him.  Plus he was supposed to be a prince.  They tended to be exempt from everything but regicide.

[jaylemurph]

1 hour ago, Opus Magnus said:

Moshe means the same thing as Moses, it doesn't matter which name you use just a different language.

 

You might as well call the Pharoah Tut-Moshe.

I imagine life is a lot simpler when you merely ignore the fiddly, complicated differences. 

Moshe is not the same as Moses. Different languages bring different histories and contexts — different meanings. To ignore those is a form of blindness.

—Jaylemurph 

[cormac mac airt]

2 hours ago, Coil said:

I do not claim that they were slaves there, they just lived there and according to public information pharaoh forced them to work hard to keep their numbers from growing. According to the Bible, the Israelis lived there for 430 years. This is a significant period to multiply and take shape as a nation, and if it were not for Moses who knows what fate would have befallen them.
If we take an example from the life of bees, if there are too many bees in the hive, then some of the bees leave the hive. And if there are really more Jews than the Egyptians, then there is no need to strongly guess who exactly should go and both sides will benefit.

In addition, the Egyptians and the Jews (as well as the Arabs) are relatives of each other because they are descended from the same people, and it is no good to fight among themselves at that time.

Using that mindset there’s allegedly a school called Hogwart’s in Scotland. Have you found that yet?

The Bible is a very loose account meant to promote a specific religious agenda. It’s as much fiction as fact. 

cormac 

[Sir Wearer of Hats]

2 hours ago, Opus Magnus said:

You might as well call the Pharoah Tut-Moshe.

No,you really can’t. Pharaonic names are made up of discrete parts each of which has VERY specific meanings courtesy of their pronounciation. Saying the name differently is LITERALLY changing the name’s meaning.

[Opus Magnus]

Moses and Moshe have literally the same spelling in Hebrew and mean exactly the same thing. What about them both being around the 14th century BC?

[jaylemurph]

8 minutes ago, Opus Magnus said:

Moses and Moshe have literally the same spelling in Hebrew and mean exactly the same thing. What about them both being around the 14th century BC?

Considering that not even the Bible — again, a source of religious propaganda, not by any means recognized as a per se historical document — the only document that mentions him doesn’t bother to give a date for Moses’ life, I don’t think that 1400 BCE date means anything at all. 

[khazarkhum]

2 hours ago, Opus Magnus said:

Moses and Moshe have literally the same spelling in Hebrew and mean exactly the same thing. What about them both being around the 14th century BC?

Could you please show us where the Bible, or any other ancient book, gives a date like '1400 BC'? 

Edited May 30, 2019 by khazarkhum

[Opus Magnus]

That is the time you get by counting backwards with the Geneaologies recorded throuought the Bible.

[Orphalesion]

1 minute ago, Opus Magnus said:

That is the time you get by counting backwards with the Geneaologies recorded throuought the Bible.

Yup because using mythological (or in some cases semi-mythological ones) characters to calculate the lifetime of another mythological character is sure to work out!
Isn't that also how that one guy in the 19th century determined that the earth is just 6000 years old?