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Cause of the Bölling-Allerød & Younger-Dryas?


jesshill
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Nearing the end of the last Ice-Age the Earth experienced three extreme climate events; i.e. (Bölling-Allerød, Younger-Dryas and Pre-boreal warming periods). And, in all three cases, the consequences for planet Earth was also extreme. The purpose of this thread is to establish a catalog of ideas pertaining to the causes and effects of these events. All that we ask is that your comments stay on topic.

image.png.c9d589ddd906e7e806843b3d187a8d6e.png

 

  • The Bölling-Allerød interstadial was a sudden, intense, climatic warming (~12° C; ~21° F) period which caused dramatic melting of large Ice Age ice sheets that covered Canada and the northern U.S., all of Scandinavia, and much of northern Europe and Russia. Sea level that had been 120 m (~400 ft) lower than present rose quickly and submerged large areas that had been dry land during the Ice Age. This warming occurred abruptly in only a few years (Steffensen et al., 2008). This warm period ran from c. 12,800 to c. 10,900 (BCE). It ended abruptly with the onset of the Younger Dryas.
     
  • The Younger-Dryas was a cold period that reduced temperatures back to near-glacial levels within a decade. It began about 10,900 (BCE) when global temperatures plunged sharply (~8°C; ~14° F), sparking a 1200-year period of glacial re-advance. Its end came abruptly with the onset of Pre-boreal warming about 9,700 (BCE).
     
  • Pre-boreal warming began about 9,700 (BCE) when, almost overnight, global temperatures rose parabolically (~12° C; ~21° F), marking the end of the Younger Dryas cold period and the end of the Pleistocene Ice Age. The peak rise in temperatures was reached about 9,500 (BCE) 

 

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I have two questions:

1) What is 0% on that scale?

2) Why does it not show after 8,000 BCE?

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Warmup caused massive glacial lakes and lots of moisture in the air.

It probably rained 360 days out of the year. (the way it does in Scotland)

Bolling-Allerod happened

Massive glacial lakes cut loose into oceans.

Ocean current slowed down.

Air dried up.

Younger-Dryas happened.

Simple enough for you? :yes:

Edited by Piney
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How do you determine past temperature from Ice-Cores?

Also that data is older than I am, any updated charts?

What's the base temperature or what's zero represent?

 

Edited by danydandan
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7 minutes ago, danydandan said:

How do you determine past temperature from Ice-Cores?

It's determined by the density of the ice (how it's compressed) and by its concentration of CO2.

What I am wondering is what 0% is, and why 10,000 years are missing.

Edited by sci-nerd
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2 minutes ago, jesshill said:

 

The chart was is featured in an article that I had read on ancient-astronomer.com titled "Younger-Dryas Period–Mystery Solved?". The author shows the chart as presented here and then, with a series of sine-waves in support his supposition. The scale is amplitude.

Jess

What does zero represent?

And why is the data not updated from 1979? Surely there are more up to date and accurate samples.

Edited by danydandan
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3 minutes ago, jesshill said:

The scale is amplitude.. 

We can see that! But what temperature is 0% equal to?

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13 minutes ago, sci-nerd said:

It's determined by the density of the ice (how it's compressed) and by its concentration of CO2.

What I am wondering is what 0% is, and why 8000 years are missing.

But how?

I assume its the oxygen isotopes or something but is that really accurate? Would the temperature of the bore hole also provide markers to determine past temperature?

Also I have to believe that the weight of the ice overtime compresses the lower layers, no? If it does the further you go back or farther you go down the less accurate these analyses become?

So I assume there is a cut off point for accuracy, if so what is it.

 

Edited by danydandan
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The zero-point on the chart according to Mr.Messick, the author of that article, is the apsidal equilibrium point as expressed in sine-waves. I don't remember if those were his exact words or not.

Jess 

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2 minutes ago, danydandan said:

But how?

I assume its the oxygen isotopes or something but is that really accurate? Would the temperature of the bore hole also provide markers to determine past temperature?

Also I have to believe that the weight if the ice overtime compresses the lower layers, no? If it does the further you go back or farther you go down the less accurate these analyses become?

So I assume there is a cut off point for accuracy, if so what is it.

https://www.theguardian.com/science/punctuated-equilibrium/2011/may/12/1

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1 minute ago, jesshill said:

The zero-point on the chart according to Mr.Messick, the author of that article, is the apsidal equilibrium point as expressed in sine-waves. I don't remember if those were his exact words or not.

Jess 

So you're basically starting a scientific debate about climate, without knowing anything about the data you present?

Is your aim by any chance, to reject global warming caused by humans?

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11 minutes ago, jesshill said:

The zero-point on the chart according to Mr.Messick, the author of that article, is the apsidal equilibrium point as expressed in sine-waves. I don't remember if those were his exact words or not.

Jess 

Do you know what apsidal means?

Also why is the data so old?

Also you haven't stated what temperature zero represents.

Edited by danydandan
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6 minutes ago, sci-nerd said:

So you're basically starting a scientific debate about climate, without knowing anything about the data you present?

Is your aim by any chance, to reject global warming caused by humans?

Apsidal ? Never seen that word used like this before.

I read a website that kinda confirmed my issues, there is only so far you can go back until weight compression of snow fall renders your core sample data inaccurate. Then you need to use radio carbon aging techniques apparently. And again the further you go back the less accurate it becomes, especially when dating that far back.

I'd be skeptical about the accuracy of such data.

Edited by danydandan
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Mr. Messick said that the 6000-year period from 14,000 to 8000 BCE was selected to increase the resolution of the period in question.

The full period is below:

 Easterbrook_Origional.PNG.2c9ced0398301c0b4b3a7e382c770800.PNG

Jess

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Creating a scientific debate was not my purpose. My purpose was to create a place to express ideas. At this point I have not expressed an opinion.

Jess

 

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2 minutes ago, jesshill said:

Creating a scientific debate was not my purpose. My purpose was to create a place to express ideas. At this point I have not expressed an opinion.

Jess

So what is your opinion? 

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6 minutes ago, jesshill said:

Mr. Messick said that the 6000-year period from 14,000 to 8000 BCE was selected to increase the resolution of the period in question.

The full period is below:

 Easterbrook_Origional.PNG.2c9ced0398301c0b4b3a7e382c770800.PNG

Jess

Hold on. Are you or more specifically thst dude saying that, the rotation of the Earth caused these temperature shifts? But if that's the case the lack of major shifts indicates what?

It indicates that it's wrong. Because if it was it would be cycling no real shift occurred in the last 10,000 years according to this data. Can you explain that?

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5 minutes ago, jesshill said:

Creating a scientific debate was not my purpose. My purpose was to create a place to express ideas. At this point I have not expressed an opinion.

Jess

 

Are you willing or able to answer any of my questions?

This is a discussion forum, the purpose of this site to provide a platform for discussion. You presented data and an article, are you not looking to discuss it?

Edited by danydandan
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That website states that vibrations caused this as a result apsidal motion!

What the hell is apsidal motion?

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12 minutes ago, danydandan said:

This is a discussion forum, the purpose of this site to provide a platform for discussion. You presented data and an article, are you not looking to discuss it?

He hasn't answered my question or responded to my answer. Which is pretty much North American geology 101. 

 

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8 minutes ago, Piney said:

He hasn't answered my question or responded to my answer. Which is pretty much North American geology 101. 

 

Im pretty sure apsidal motion isn't an astrological term. The writer means, apsis apsides which represent the nearest (periapsis) and farthest point of rotation around an object (apoapsis).

The Earths eccentricity is like 0.01 or 0.02. which is basically a circle. So there isn't a massive definition or distance of apsis. I think it's 5million km? But the periapsis is summer and the apoapsis is winter. It happens every year.

So the whole article is bunk.

Edited by danydandan
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1 minute ago, danydandan said:

So the whole article is bunk.

I think this is a "Plasma theorist" so the whole theory is bunk or we wouldn't be having this conversation.

Maybe he doesn't understand my Yorkshire accent? I'll use broken English as expected from a Redskin like myself.

@jesshill  How!

What um is um your um idea? 

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