101 contradictions in the Bible

[convert-proof]

*sigh* i could disprove them all, especially the number misconceptions. There were many # misconceptions in the bible, thats because they were taken from different people's point of views. No, God did not right the bible, people did, who recieved different information about whatever.

[convert-proof]

it is easy, PEOPLE wrote the bible, not God. So it isn't perfect. There might have been mis-translations from being translated from language to language.

[+Paranoid Android]

It may have been helpful putting in fewer contradictions and simply stating that there are many more and providing a source. As it is, I got sick of reading through them. And I cannot hope to refute all the claims that you put down, simply due to the massive numbers of them.

Lol you have no idea how loud (And long) I laughed on this comment you made. Thank you for the help.

simply pointing out that it would be helpful to put fewer down here so we don't have to scroll through it all. They're mostly out of context anyway....

Acts 22:9 actually says "THEY DID NOT UNDERSTAND THE VOICE OF HIM WHO WAS SPEAKING TO ME". It does not say they did not hear it. Again, you have taken a passage without even looking deeply at it.

And they that were with me saw indeed the light' date=' and were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake to me.[/quote']Kind of missed it there didn't you.

I'll check this up from the original Greek and reply later, but for now I'll just say taht I was using the NIV Bible, which does read "they did not understand the voice of him who was speaking to me" (Acts 22:9)

Regards,

[Stellar]

So how can you trust it?

[+Paranoid Android]

I could go through every single scripture on that list and debunk your "contradictions."

I might do that later, b/c it will take me a long time.

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I'll give you a hand Amalgamut. If you need it. I was considering doing the same thing actually.

Regards,

[Amalgamut]

Lets look at the facts:

Who incited David to count the fighting men of Israel?

(a) God did (2 Samuel 24: 1)

(b ) Satan did (I Chronicles 2 1:1)

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No contradiction here...

This is what they call a "parallel scripture" can you say "parallel?"

They BOTH incited the men....

"Satan rose up against Israel and incited David to take census of Israel...." (1 Chron 21:1)

"Again, the anger of the Lord burned against Israel, and he incited David against them, saying, "Go and take a census of Israel and Judah." (2 Samuel 24:1)

The scripture is paralllel, God allowed Satan to incite the men. God was angry, and he allowed Satan to incite the census. God wanted to teach man that they should trust God over numbers (men in an army.)

God wanted to show that these people should have trusted Him in the first place.

This is a simple mis-interpretation, not a contradiction.

(This will be VERY common)

EDITED// Rearranged words to make my point more clear. Apparently, there was some confusion.

  In that count how many fighting men were found in Israel?

(a) Eight hundred thousand (2 Samuel 24:9)

(b ) One million, one hundred thousand (IChronicles 21:5)

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In the book of Samuel, 300,000 men were left out.

Its simple really, those 300,000 men were not recognized as "men of the sword" of this time. So, they were left out of the counting.

This is probably a lesson in itself to show that the number of an army does not matter to God, only to man.

How many fighting men were found in Judah?

(a)  Five hundred thousand (2 Samuel 24:9)

(b ) Four hundred and seventy thousand (I Chronicles 21:5)

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In 1Chronicles 21:6 it says "But Joab did not include Levi and Benjamin in the numbering...."

So, in 1Chron 21:6 it says that some men were left out.

In 2 Samuel 24:9, it does not.

God sent his prophet to threaten David with how many years of famine?

(a) Seven (2 Samuel 24:13)

(b ) Three (I Chronicles 21:12)

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Both passages used the original Hebrew word for septuagint

It referred to it being 7 years.

In the NIV version of the Bible, they both say "three" but footnote the orginal septuagint.

So, again, there is no contradiction. Hence, both scriptures say "three" anyway.

How old was Ahaziah when he began to rule over Jerusalem?

(a)  Twenty-two (2 Kings 8:26)

(b ) Forty-two (2 Chronicles 22:2)

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The Septuagint and Syriac show the number forty-two.

The author of Chronicles was just more precise in the age number.

I wouldn't see why anyone would call this a contradiction when it says in the Bible the orginial number was forty-two.

How old was Jehoiachin when he became king of Jerusalem?

(a) Eighteen (2 Kings 24:8)

(b )  Eight (2 Chronicles 36:9)

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There is a mistake in the question... it should read..

(a) Eighteen(2 Kings 24:8)

and

(b ) Eighteen (2 Chronicles 36:9)

Look! its a contradictory question!!!

In any Bible you pick up, you will see a footnote saying the original number from Hebrew manuscripts is eight.

Not really a contradiction if you ask me. Not only does the Bible point this out, but what exaclty is it contradicting?

EDITED// In the NIV, both say eighteen, but have a footnote, saying the septuagint says this number could be "8." Regardless, there is no contradiction. One passage could mean that the boy was king at 8, and in the other he was king at 18, meaning he could have been considered king at 8, but not officially till the age 18, which is a more mature age. One scripture may have simply just pointed this out.

How long did he rule over Jerusalem?

(a) Three months (2 Kings 24:8)

(b ) Three months and ten days (2 Chronicles 36:9)

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Come on people, 10 days? The only reason why in Chronicles it has "10 more days" is because the author was more precise on the age.

Let's say you have a bull, and you want to sell it. You tell the buyer it is "10 months old." The buyer doesn't buy the bull. The next buyer comes and looks at the bull on the same day, and you tell that buyer the bull is "10 months and 7 days old."

Is that really a contradiction? No, you simply were more exact on the age of the bull.

The chief of the mighty men of David lifted up his spear and killed how many men at one time?

(a)  Eight hundred (2 Samuel 23:8)

(b )  Three hundred (I Chronicles 11: 11)

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One authour mentioned what only David and his tribe did in part, while the other author mentioned what David and his tribe did in full.

When did David bring the Ark of the Covenant to Jerusalem? Before defeating the Philistines or after?

(a) After (2 Samuel 5 and 6)

(b )  Before (I Chronicles 13 and 14)

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No contradiction here...

One prophet gave us the complete history of the ark all at once, and the other gave us the history in a different way.

You have to understand the entirety of the scripture before you can call it contradictory.

I see whoever made this list failed to do that.

How many pairs of clean animals did God tell Noah to take into the Ark?

(a) Two (Genesis 6:19, 20)

(b ) Seven (Genesis 7:2). But despite this last instruction only two pairs went into the ark (Genesis 7:8-9)

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Well, the last time I checked, in most animals you need two creatures (male and female) to mate to produce offspring.

In Genesis 6:19 it says..."You are to bring into the ark two of all living creatures, male and female...

In Genesis, it doesn't say "pair" even if it did you need a male and female.

Yes!!! Ding ding ding! You need two of each animal to make offspring!!

Genesis 7:2........ "Take with you seven of every kind of clean animal, a male and its mate...."

It says basically, bring seven males, and seven females of each animal.

"Two of every kind of bird...." (Gen 6:20) means "Bring a male and female of every kind of bird.

"Two of each animal...." (male and female) "Seven pairs" (seven pairs of male and female)

Again, no contradiction whatsoever, just a lack in reading comprehension.

When David defeated the King of Zobah, how many horsemen did he capture?

(a)  One thousand and seven hundred (2 Samuel 8:4)

(b ) Seven thousand (I Chronicles 18:4)

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In the NIV version, they say the exact same number.

How many stalls for horses did Solomon have?

(a) Forty thousand (I Kings 4:26)

(b )  Four thousand (2 chronicles 9:25)

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Are you seriously gonna put another number promblem in here?

Both scriptures have a footnote of forty thousand.

Hardly a contradiction.

In what year of King Asa's reign did Baasha,   King of Israel die?

(a) Twenty-sixth year  (I Kings 15:33 - 16:8)

(b ) Still alive in the thirty-sixth year (2 Chronicles 16:1)

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Man, this is getting old.I can't believe we have another argument about ten years.

Back in the day, there was a mis-interpretation of the age.

Ten of the years could have been taken out, because of these ten years he could have been doing evil things. He could have been "dead to God" on his twenty-sixth year. So, therefore one prophet saw him as 26, and the other 36.

Plus, like I have said many times, the author of Chronicles is more precise when it comes to peoples age.

How many overseers did Solomon appoint for the work of building the temple?

(a) Three thousand six hundred (2 Chronicles 2:2)

(b ) Three thousand three hundred (I Kings 5:16)

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The numbers in (a) and (b ) should be reversed. Anyway...

One author included the supervisory force, the other didn't.

Hardly a contradiction.

Solomon built a facility containing how many baths?

(a) Two thousand (1 Kings 7:26)

(b ) Over three thousand (2 Chronicles 4:5)

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My original answer would be "who cares?" But, for the sake of proving my point, I shall answer.

The point of this passage is to show how big and rich Solomons temple was. In the Septuagint, it doesn't say "It held two thousand baths" in (1 Kings 7:26)

Sometimes, numbers in the Bible are symbolic.

The point of the scripture is to show the wealth of the Solomon.

Again, the author of Chronicles shows there are more baths. He is more precise in numbering.

Edited May 7, 2005 by Amalgamut

[Amalgamut]

Im still working on my post, so it may look weird for a bit.

I just wanted to submit it, in case something got erased.

[MrScienceGuy]

GEN 1:25 And God made the beast of the earth after his kind, and cattle after their kind, and every thing that creepeth upon the earth after his kind: and God saw that it was good.

GEN 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

GEN 2:18 And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

GEN 2:19 And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof.

That's what I found from a website, haven't checked the context though, so I can't claim anything. See for yourself.

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Genesis 1:1 says “In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth…” Later, in Genesis 2:4, it seems that a second, different story of Creation begins. However, close examination of the text will show that what is recorded in 1:1-2:3 is an introductory summary of the events of creation, and that what begins with verse 2:4 is a more detailed account of the Creation of mankind. There is nothing in the two Creation accounts that contradicts. Genesis 2:4-25 should be understand as a further explanation of what happened in Genesis 1:26-31. It is comparable to taking a magnifying glass to Genesis 1:26-31 to take a closer look at the Creation of mankind.

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Well look, the first account says "God made the beast of the earth after his kind, and cattle after their kind, and every thing that creepeth upon the earth after his kind: and God saw that it was good. And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." So first he created all the animals and then he said, "Let us make man... and let them have dominion over" all other animals.

In the second account it says that God created Adam and then said that it is not good that a man should be alone and that he will make creatures for him: "And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof."

So in the first account God created animals first, and in the second account, he created Adam first, and then made animals to keep him company. Contradictory or what?

[+Paranoid Android]

Im still working on my post, so it may look weird for a bit.

I just wanted to submit it, in case something got erased.

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I'm really impressed, Amalgamut. Can't believe you did this so quickly....

Congrats,

[mako]

Yeah, congrats on the biggest attempt at "waffling and tap dancing" that I have ever seen. I particularly liked "being dead and at the point of death can mean the same thing" lol even in the olden times peopl at the point of death could be pulled back by someone with medical (primitive as it was then) knowledge, but they couldn't bring back the dead! All of your so-called answers are similar....You still haven't shown that the bible doen't contradict itself! Mr Science, don't you love a good floor show with all the tap-dancing around answers LOL

[Amalgamut]

... don't you love a good floor show with all the tap-dancing around answers LOL           

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You are blinded to the light my friend.

You will never see the answers.

Again, I did not say I was done yet.

[mako]

You are blinded to the light my friend.

No, you can’t be blinded when there is no light. I have studied your mythology and found it hypocritical, bloody and totally wanting! There is nothing original in it, the crucified Savior ManGod was a recurring theme throughout the Eurasia from 1000 BCE onward, Mithra, Hercules, Osirus, Krishna, Tien Ti, etc. The only thing original about Christianity is no other religion has ever spilled the amount of blood over as extended a period as did Christianity (Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant)! It had to borrow the Jewish scriptures, borrow the sacrificed savior concept and even borrow the miracles from the 1st century CE magician/savior Appollonius! As I said there is no light, only your imagination!

You will never see the answers.

I see the answer alright. I have made a point of studying your religion, it’s origins, and it’s history! The answer is that Christianity has been found wanting and patently without any evidence of veracity!

Again, I did not say I was done yet.

If you continue, you will still “waffle and tap dance”, so why does it matter?

[Amalgamut]

If you continue, you will still “waffle and tap dance”, so why does it matter? 

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A smart one I see.

I am not "waffling and tapdancing"

I am showing how it is not a contradiction.

[Amalgamut]

Of the Israelites who were freed from the Babylonian captivity, how many were the children of Pahrath-Moab? 

(a)  Two thousand eight hundred and twelve (Ezra 2:6)

(b ) Two thousand eight hundred and eighteen (Nehemiah 7:11)

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Wow, we are talking about what? six people?

One list is of the people who announced their intentions, the other list is those that actually carried them out, or arrived.

How many were the children of Zattu?

(a) Nine hundred and forty-five (Ezra 2:8)

(b ) Eight hundred and forty-five (Nehemiah 7:13)

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Same reason as above.

How many were the children of Azgad?

(a) One thousand two hundred and twenty-two (Ezra 2:12)

(b ) Two thousand three hundred and twenty-two (Nehemiah 7:17)

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Same reason as above

How many were the children of Adin?

(a) Four hundred and fifty-four (Ezra 2:15)

(b ) Six hundred and fifty-five (Nehemiah 7:20)

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Same reason as above.

How many were the children of Hashum?

(a) Two hundred and twenty-three (Ezra 2:19)

(b ) Three hundred and twenty-eight (Nehemiah 7:22)

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Same.

How many were the children of Bethel and Ai?

(a) Two hundred and twenty-three (Ezra 2:28)

(b ) One hundred and twenty-three (Nehemiah 7:32)

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Same reason.

Ezra 2:64 and Nehemiah 7:66 agree that the total number of the whole assembly was 42,360. Yet the numbers do not add up to anything close. The totals obtained from each book is as follows:

(a) 29,818 (Ezra)

(b ) 31,089 (Nehemiah)

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Same reason again.

How many singers accompanied the assembly?

(a)  Two hundred (Ezra 2:65)

(b ) Two hundred and forty-five (Nehemiah 7:67)

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Simple math. The author rounded the number on one, and not on the other.

What was the name of King Abijah’s mother?

(a) Michaiah, daughter of Uriel of Gibeah (2 Chronicles 13:2)

(b ) Maachah, daughter of Absalom (2 Chronicles 11:20) But Absalom had only one daughter whose name was Tamar (2 Samuel 14:27)

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In one passage daughter means "grand-daughter."

The people are linked to greater relatives, than the immediate father(s).

Did Joshua and the Israelites capture Jerusalem?

(a) Yes (Joshua 10:23, 40)

(b )  No (Joshua 15:63)

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This is speaking of a campaign, he did kill them, yes. The "contradictory" scripture is running the same time as the other, but one story does not mention this outcome.

Who was the father of Joseph, husband of Mary?

(a) Jacob (Matthew 1:16)

(b ) Hell (Luke 3:23)

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"Hell?" I think you mean "Heli" Anyway..

The births are told from two different perspectives.

The book of Matthew gives the genealogy of Joseph, and the book of Luke gives the genealogy of Mary.

Luke follows strict Hebrew tradition in naming only the males, while the other doesn't.

Jesus descended from which son of David?

(a) Solomon (Matthew 1:6)

(b ) Nathan(Luke3:31)

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This is linked to the "contradiction" above. So, it would seem this way, if you did not understand the previous genealogy, you couldn't understand the scripture and meaning.

Who was the father of Shealtiel?

(a) Jechoniah (Matthew 1:12)

(b ) Neri’ (Luke 3:27)

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Same thing as above.

Which son of Zerubbabel was an ancestor of Jesus Christ?

(a) Abiud (Matthew 1: 13)

(b ) Rhesa (Luke 3:27) But the seven sons of Zerubbabel are as follows: i.Meshullam, ii. Hananiah, iii. Hashubah, iv. Ohel, v.Berechiah, vi. Hasadiah, viii. Jushabhesed (I Chronicles 3:19, 20). The names Abiud and Rhesa do not fit in anyway.

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Again, we have a mis-understanding in previous lineage. Certain names show up when others do not. Its simply because one author chose to follow strict Jewish tradition in naming (or recording) the genealogy.

Just because one scripture gives us more information, it doesn't mean it contradicts the parallel chapter to it.

Who was the father of Uzziah?

(a)   Joram (Matthew 1:8)

(b )  Amaziah (2 Chronicles 26:1)

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This is basically the same as above. One is a grandfather, and the other a father. It notes the immediate father in one book, but the grand father in another. Matthew used a different form of telescoping the genealogy, which was acceptable at this time.

Who as the father of Jechoniah?

(a)   Josiah (Matthew 1:11)

(b ) Jeholakim (I Chronicles 3:16)

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Again, we have the same situation.

How many generations were there from the Babylonian exile until Christ?

(a) Matthew says fourteen (Matthew 1:17)

(b )  But a careful count of the generations reveals only thirteen (see Matthew 1: 12-16)

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Fourteen.

The person who wrote the passage included themselves.

Duh.

(Note: Notice how the question states a higher number as the first question in a later time, and lower one as the third, in an earlier time. They try to mislead you.)

Who was the father of Shelah?

(a)  Cainan (Luke 3:35-36)

(b )  Arphaxad (Genesis II: 12)

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Arphaxed was 135 when he had Cainan (the Septuagint says 135 yrs)

In Luke, it mentions the grandfather. Not the direct father. Hardly contradictory.

They where both fathers.

Was John the Baptist Elijah who was to come?

(a)  Yes (Matthew II: 14, 17:10-13)

(b )  No(John 1:19-21)

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This misunderstanding is due to the lack of reading comprehension.

They are both empowered by the Holy Spirt, their names are symbolic to who they are in Christ.

"I am the voice of one calling in the desert, 'Make straight the way for the Lord.'"

(John 1:23)

Would Jesus inherit David’s throne?

(a) Yes. So said the angel (Luke 1:32)

(b ) No, since he is a descendant of Jehoiakim (see Matthew 1: I 1, I Chronicles 3:16). And Jehoiakim was cursed by God so that none of his descendants can sit upon David’s throne (Jeremiah 36:30)

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This relates to the misunderstanding of the genealogy mentioned above.

Edited May 4, 2005 by Amalgamut

[Amalgamut]

Jesus rode into Jerusalem on how many animals?

(a)  One - a colt (Mark 11:7; cf Luke 19:3 5). “And they brought the colt to Jesus and threw their garments on it; and he sat upon it.”

(b )  Two - a colt and an ass (Matthew 21:7). “They brought the ass and the colt and put their garments on them and he sat thereon.”

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You see many scriptures like this in the Bible. This is scripture emphasizes the immaturity of the colt.

Many times in the Bible you see the same scripture, (running with its parallel) but in one it mentions more or less, to emphasize a point.

Again, just because one scripture mentions more than the other hardly contradicts it.

How did Simon Peter find out that Jesus was the Christ?

(a)  By a revelation from heaven (Matthew 16:17)

(b )  His brother Andrew told him (John 1:41)

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God told him. This does not rule out that someone told him as well.

It was simply restated by his brother.

Where did Jesus first meet Simon Peter and Andrew?

(a) By the sea of Galilee (Matthew 4:18-22)

(b )  On the banks of river Jordan (John 1:42). After that, Jesus decided to go to Galilee (John 1:43)

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"By the sea of Galiliee"

The River Jordan runs off into the Sea of Galilee.

He could have been "by the sea of Galilee" and "on the banks of the river Jordan" at the same time.

When Jesus met Jairus was Jairus’ daughter already dead?

(a)  Yes. Matthew 9:18 quotes him as saying, “My daughter has just died.”

(b )  No. Mark 5:23 quotes him as saying, “My little daughter is at the point of death.”

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Being at the "point of death" and "just died" can mean the same thing.

A point is a place. He could very well have said "My little daughter is at the place of death."

Did Jesus allow his disciples to keep a staff on their journey?

(a)  Yes(Mark6:8)

(b )  No (Matthew 10:9; Luke 9:3)

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Simple really, Jesus said basically "Don't take anything that you won't need, but if you have a staff take that, but if you don't have a staff, don't go and buy one."

Did Herod think that Jesus was John the Baptist?

(a)   Yes (Matthew 14:2; Mark 6:16)

(b )  No (Luke 9:9)

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Herod thought he was John, but John was already dead.

It was actually Jesus.

The Bible records what Herod thought he was in one scripture, but in the other scripture it tells who he actually was, it was Jesus.

EDITED// Spelling error.

Did John the Baptist recognize Jesus before his baptism?

(a)   Yes (Matthew 3:13-14)

(b )  No (John 1:32,33)

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John only knew Jesus in the Holy Spirit at one time. This is probably why he didn't recognize him. The other time he saw him in the flesh and did.

Did John the Baptist recognize Jesus after his baptism?

(a)   Yes (John 1:32, 33)

(b )  No (Matthew 11:2)

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He did. There was much time that had passed in the two scriptures. John was somewhat disillusioned at the time.

According to the Gospel of John, what did Jesus say about bearing his own witness?

(a)   “If I bear witness to myself, my testimony is not true” (John 5:3 1)

(b )  “Even if I do bear witness to myself, my testimony is true” (John 8:14)

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You must read after the scriptures to fully understand.

He basically is saying "If I just testify in about myself, and only myself, it is not true, but If I testify about myself in terms of the Son of God, it is true."

When Jesus entered Jerusalem did he cleanse the temple that same day?

(a)   Yes (Matthew 21:12)

(b )  No. He went into the temple and looked around, but since it was very late he did nothing. Instead, he went to Bethany to spend the night and returned the next morning to cleanse the temple (Mark I 1:1- 17).

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The reason for this is the use of Matthew's words on the narrative. He just used his words in topical order. He basically got to the point, whereas Mark wrote it in a chronological way.

Keep in mind, these are two different authors, but they mean the same thing.

The Gospels say that Jesus cursed a fig tree. Did the tree wither at once?

(a)   Yes. (Matthew 21:19)

(b )    No. It withered overnight (Mark II: 20)

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Again, we have two different authors that use different styles of writting. See the previous answer above.

One author emphasized more on the time, the other did not. It very well could have withered at once, and remained to wither during the night.

Did Judas kiss Jesus?

(a)   Yes (Matthew 26:48-50)

(b )  No. Judas could not get close enough to Jesus to kiss him (John 18:3-12)

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This question is loaded. Nowhere in John 18:3-12 does it say Judas couldn't get close enough.

What did Jesus say about Peter’s denial?

(a)   “The c*** will not crow till you have denied me three times” (John 13:38).

(b )   “Before the c*** crows twice you will deny me three times” (Mark 14:30) . When the c*** crowed once, the three denials were not yet complete (see Mark 14:72). Therefore prediction (a) failed.

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Ok...this is pretty simple to explain. Here are the scriptures that tell us about the rooster, or c***.

Matthew 26:33-35, 74-75 "before the rooster crows you will disown me three times"

Luke 22:31-34, 60-62 "before the rooster crows today, you will deny three times that you know me"

John 13:38 "before the rooster crows, you will disown me three times"

We see three scriptures that tell us basically "You will disown me thrice, before the rooster crows."

Now, lets go to Mark 14:72..

"Immediately the rooster crowed the second time. Then Peter remembered the word Jesus had spoken to him: "Before the rooster crows twice you will disown me three times." And he broke down and wept."

Peter did in fact betray Jesus. So, the prophecy holds water, and no contradiction!

Whether or not it was the second time is really insignificant, because Peter could have betrayed Jesus already but not have heard the first crow. This "crow" was used to remind Peter of what Jesus had said, and what Peter had done. "And he broke down and wept." (Mark 14:72)

Notice in every other scripture it says "Before the rooster crows."

However, if you read Mark 14:72 you notice a footnote in your Bible, it says "Early manuscripts do not have the second time."

Did Jesus bear his own cross?

(a)   Yes (John 19:17)

(b )  No (Matthew 27:31-32)

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Jesus carried his own cross. The only difference in the two passages is that in Matthew it says Simon helped Jesus carry it. But, Simon was eventually told to let Jesus carry it himself.

Basically, they both carried it, but Simon helped at first.

Both scriptures are correct. They both carried it at some point.

No contradiction.

Edited May 7, 2005 by Amalgamut

[Amalgamut]

Did Jesus die before the curtain of the temple was torn?

(a)  Yes(Matthew27:50-5 1;MarklS:37-38)

(b )  No. After the curtain was torn, then Jesus crying with a loud voice, said, “Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit!” And having said this he breathed his last (Luke 23:45-46)

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You must read these entire scriptures to get the full meaning.

You must think of Jesus dying at the moment...

"And the curtain of the temple was torn in two. Jesus called out with a loud voice, "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit." When he had said this, he breathed his last." (Luke 23-24)

"And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit. At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom." (Matt 27:50-51)

"With a loud cry, Jesus breathed his last. The curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom." (Mark 15:37-38)

Notice the word "moment" in Matt 27:50-51.

There is no way to time the actual relevance of the curtain opening before he died, or vice versa. They happened so fast, in the "moment."

They very well could have happend at the same exact time.

This is hardly any contradiction. A very weak one at that.

Did Jesus say anything secretly?

(a)  No. “I have said nothing secretly” (John 18:20)

(b )  Yes. “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his own disciples he explained everything” (Mark 4:34). The disciples asked him “Why do you speak to them in parables?” He said, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been given” (Matthew 13: 1 0-11)

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In John 1:20 it says "He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely."

Jesus spoke in parables. He may have told his disciples everything more clearly, but he told the masses things through parables.

Had he went and told everything directly, people would have written him off as crazy. (Which many people did)

But if He spoke in parables, the people who were interested would dig deeper, and find the truth. He just told more than others. "He who hath an ear, let him listen..."

The people who wanted to hear, Jesus would deliver.

Where was Jesus at the sixth hour on the day of the crucifixion?

(a)  On the cross (Mark 15:23)

(b )  In Pilate’s court (John 19:14)

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Again, we have two different authors. One may have used a different measurement of time.

Regardless, it still happend. The (sixth hour) is only relative.

In John 19:14, it says "about the sixth hour." Just after this scripture, he was crucified.

Jesus could have very well been in Pilate's court, and crucifide on the "6th hour."

The gospels say that two thieves were crucified along with Jesus. Did both thieves mock Jesus?

(a)  Yes (Mark 15:32)

(b ) No. One of them mocked Jesus, the other defended Jesus (Luke 23:43)

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They both did. (Mocked him) But one of them defended Jesus (after he realized who Jesus really was.)

You must tie the two scriptures together

Again, we see no contradiction.

Did Jesus ascend to Paradise the same day of the crucifixion?

(a)  Yes. He said to the thief who defended him, “Today you will be with me in Paradise” (Luke 23:43)

(b )  No. He said to Mary Magdelene two days later, “I have not yet ascended to the Father” (John 20:17)

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Jesus appeard to her in the Spirit.

Jesus still had work to do in the Spirit form. Just because he had not "ascended to the Father,"doesn't mean his spirt was not in paradise.

When he says "I have not yet ascended to the Father" simply means "I have not yet set up permanent residence in Heaven, I still have things to do."

When Paul was on the road to Damascus he saw a light and heard a voice. Did those who were with him hear the voice?

(a)  Yes(Acts9:7)

(b )  No(Acts22:9)

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In Acts 22:9, they saw it, but did not understand it.

When Paul saw the light he fell to the ground. Did his traveling companions also fall to the ground?

(a)  Yes (Acts 26:14)

(b ) No (Acts 9:7)

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"The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless..." (Acts 9:7)

The focal point of this story is mainly Saul, the men don't really play a key role in this story. They are there mainly to exaggerate a point.

Even so, the word "stood" can also mean "to be fixed or rooted on the spot."

This can be experienced laying down, or standing up.

Did the voice spell out on the spot what Paul’s duties were to be?

(a)  Yes (Acts 26:16-18)

(b )  No. The voice commanded Paul to go into the city of Damascus and there he will be told what he must do. (Acts9:7;22: 10)

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Notice the order of the scripture.

Paul doesn't mention he chronological or geographical order. The people have already heard his story. He just makes it more clear in Acts 26:16-18.

When the Israelites dwelt in Shittin they committed adultery with the daughters of Moab. God struck them with a plague. How many people died in that plague?

(a)  Twenty-four thousand (Numbers 25:1 and 9)

(b )  Twenty-three thousand (I Corinthians 10:8)

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Simple, two different plagues, two different numbers.

These are not the same plague.

How many members of the house of Jacob came to Egypt?

(a)  Seventy souls (Genesis 4&27)

(b )  Seventy-five souls (Acts 7:14)

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There is a footnote..... it says the Septuagint mentioned seventy-five. In one book, the grandsons were recorded. In the other, they were not.

What did Judas do with the blood money he received for betraying Jesus?

(a)  He bought a field (Acts 1: 18)

(b )  He threw all of it into the temple and went away. The priests could not put the blood money into the temple treasury, so they used it to buy a field to bury strangers (Matthew 27:5)

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One chapter is a summary of the other. Judas' (not necessarily Judas himself) money bought a field, thats the point.

His money bought a field, which he later died in.

How did Judas die?

(a)  After he threw the money into the temple he went away and hanged himself (Matthew 27:5)

(b )  After he bought the field with the price of his evil deed he fell headlong and burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out (Acts 1:18)

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Judas did hang himself, and after he died his body was cut down, and he did fall headlong and did burst open in the field. This happened due to his body decomposing.

He hung himself, probably from a tree in the the field.

Why is the field called “Field of Blood”?

(a)  Because the priests bought it with the blood money (Matthew 27:8)

(b )  Because of the bloody death of Judas therein (Acts 1:19)

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Simple, its called the "Field of Blood" because both things happened.

It would only be appropriate to name it this, due to Juda's shedding his blood on it, and the field was bought with the money used to turn Jesus in.

Is this contradictory? No.

Who is a ransom for whom?

(a)  “The Son of Man came...to give his life as a ransom for many” (Mark 10:45). “Christ Jesus who gave himself as a ransom for all... “(I Timothy 2:5-6)

(b )  “The wicked is a ransom for the righteous, and the faithless for the upright” (Proverbs 21:18)

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These are two different types of ransom.

The question "Who is a ransom for whom?"

Jesus was the ransom for many. He gave his life.

Is the law of Moses useful?

(a)  Yes. “All scripture is... profitable...” (2 Timothy 3:16)

(b )  No. “. . . A former commandment is set aside because of its weakness and uselessness... “(Hebrews 7:18)

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All scripture is indeed profitable. (2Timothy 3:16)

As for Hebrews 7:18......

The former regulation (the priesthood and the law) is set aside as weak and useless since it cannot cleanse from sin or provide power to obey.

A better hope is brought in to replace it which will do what the law and the priesthood could not do---enable us to draw near to God.

These two scriptures, in no way contradict each other.

"Commandment" is not in the NIV version. (Regulation is. )

What was the exact wording on the cross?

(a)  “This is Jesus the King of the Jews” (Matthew 27:37)

(b )  “The King of the Jews” (Mark 15:26)

©  “This is the King of the Jews” (Luke 23:38)

(d)  “Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews” (John 19:19)

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Look at this question, and ask yourself....what are the differences?

They mean the same thing. Its like me saying...

"This is the King of the apples"

"Apple King"

or..

"This is apple, King of the apples"

They all mean the same thing. It doesn't take a quantum physicist to figure this out.

Exact words or not, they all mean the same thing. That is exact.

Did Herod want to kill John the Baptist?

(a)  Yes (Matthew 14:5)

(b )  No. It was Herodias, the wife of Herod who wanted to kill him. But Herod knew that he was a righteous man and kept him safe (Mark 6:20)

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Some of these questions are silly.

Its possible that both wanted to kill him.

It mentions both in one scripture, and one in the other. Does this completly single out that one or the other wanted to kill him? No.

They both did, but Herod set his foot down and told his wife that he was a righteous man. Does this signify any contradiction? Nope.

Again, we have a very weak attempt to contradict the Bible.

[Amalgamut]

Who was the tenth disciple of Jesus in the list of twelve?

(a)  Thaddaeus (Matthew 10: 1-4; Mark 3:13 -19)

(b )  Judas son of James is the corresponding name in Luke’s gospel (Luke 6:12-16)

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Both can be correct. It was not unusual for people of this time to use more than one name.

I guess pick which name you like best, and plug it in. It makes no difference and contradicts nothing.

The two names can be interchanged.

Jesus saw a man sitat the tax collector’s office and called him to be his disciple. What was his name?

(a)  Matthew (Matthew 9:9)

(b )  Levi (Mark 2:14; Luke 5:27)

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Again, another name scenario.

Matthew was also know as Levi, in the Bible.

Was Jesus crucified on the daytime before the Passover meal or the daytime after?

(a)  After (Mark 14:12-17)

(b )  Before. Before the feast of the Passover (John 1) Judas went out at night (John 13:30). The other disciples thought he was going out to buy supplies to prepare for the Passover meal (John 13:29). When Jesus was arrested, the Jews did not enter Pilate’s judgment hail because they wanted to stay clean to eat the Passover (John 18:28). When the judgment was pronounced against Jesus, it was about the sixth hour on the day of Preparation for the Passover (John 19:14)

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Again, we have a weak attempt.

In Mark 14:17 it says "When evening came, Jesus arrived with the Twelve." (Passover)

Then in John 13:30 it says "As soon as Judas had taken out the bread, he went out. And it was night."

It was at this time (night) when passover occured. You can see this because John 13:31 is a continuation of this story where Jesus eats and talks with his disciples, and predicts the denial of Peter.

Do keep in mind, in some instances, the number "6" is a number of evil. The "sixth hour" could be used as a symbol referring to an "evil hour."

Did Jesus pray to The Father to prevent the crucifixion?

(a)  Yes. (Matthew 26:39; Mark 14:36; Luke 22:42)

(b )  No. (John 12:27)

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Man, these attempts are getting much weaker now. Its kinda sad, really.

It mentions he does pray in three scriptures, but he isnt praying about preventing the crucifixion. Matter of fact, it mentions nothing of the crucifixion in Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, or Luke 22:42. Jesus is in the Garden of Gethsemane when he is praying to God. Jesus is scared, and he he praying to the Father to give him strengh in the coming hours.

"Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done. And an angel from heaven appeared to him and strengthened Him." (Luke 22:42-43)

It's funny because the person who asks this question has the answer in the next line. (Luke 22:43)

Jesus never mentioned anything about preventing the crucifixion. He knows he was sent to the earth to preach the word of God, and die for our sins. He was merely praying for strength, and his prayer was answered.

In the gospels which say that Jesus prayed to avoid the cross, how many times did ‘he move away from his disciples to pray?

(a)  Three (Matthew 26:36-46 and Mark 14:32-42)

(b )  One. No opening is left for another two times. (Luke 22:39-46)

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Read all of these scriptures. They complement each other. Just because it doesn't mention it in one doesn't mean it didn't happen, or contradicting.

Matter of fact, in the NIV version, it does not say anything of "No opening is left for another two times."

Matthew and Mark agree that Jesus went away and prayed three times. What were the words of the second prayer?

(a)  Mark does not give the words but he says that the words were the same as the first prayer (Mark 14:3 9)

(b )  Matthew gives us the words, and we can see that they are not the same as in the first (Matthew 26:42)

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This is sad...

Mark 14:36.......

Same prayer used in Matthew 26:42...

WOW!!!

What did the centurion say when Jesus dies?

(a)   “Certainly this man was innocent” (Luke 23:47)

(b )  “Truly this man was the Son of God” (Mark 15:39)

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Matthew and Mark were more interested in the divinity declaration made by the centurion. Whereas Luke was more of an author of the humanity of Jesus. The centurion probably said "This innocent man, is truly the Son of God."

Its just that Matt and Mark wrote down only part of the statment "Truly the Son of God." And Luke just copied down "This was an innocent man."

When Jesus said “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken Me ? ” in what language did he speak?

(a)   Hebrew: the words are “Eloi, Eloi …..“(Matthew 27:46)

(b )  Aramaic: the words are “Eloi, Eloi ….. “(Mark   15:34)

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This reminds me of a multiple choice test question, where the teacher put the same answer down twice...

Anyway, these come from two different Authors, they wrote it down differently.

Jesus spoke in many different languages. Both authors just copied it down these exact words in two different languages.

Keep in mind the Gospel was preached to a multi-lingual society.

According to the gospels, what were the last words of Jesus before he died?

(a)   “Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit!” (Luke 23:46)

(b )  "It is finished" (John 19:30).

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This shows no contradiction. This is starting to get silly.

Two witnesses were there, they recorded two different things.

He probably said.... "Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit; for it is finished!"

One author wrote down one thing, and the other wrote down something else.

Edited May 4, 2005 by Amalgamut

[Amalgamut]

When Jesus entered Capernaum he healed the slave of a centurion. Did the centurion come personally to request Jesus for this?

(a)  Yes (Matthew 8:5)

(b )  No. He sent some elders of the Jews and his friends (Luke 7:3,6)

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This is a misunderstanding of a sequence. Not a contradiction.

Again, its called "reading comprehension."

Did Adam die on the same day he ate the fruit?

(a)  Adam was told that if and when he eats the forbidden fruit he would die the same day (Genesis 2:17)

(b )  Adam ate the fruit and went on to live to a ripe old age of 930 years (Genesis 5:5)

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There was no question here, only choices. So I assumed you meant the one I put in for you.

Adam did die when he ate the fruit. He died spiritually.

Physically, he did not die. His spirit died the same day he ate the fruit.

Again, we have a misunderstanding of the scripture, and its meaning.

What was the lifespan for humans?

(a)  God decided that the life-span of humans will be limited to 120 years (Genesis 6:3)

(b )  Many people born after that lived longer than 120. Arpachshad lived 438 years. His son Shelah lived 433 years. His son Eber lived 464 years, etc. (Genesis 11:12-16)

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"My Spirit will not contend with man forever, for he is mortal; his days will be a hundred and tweny years." (Genesis 6:3)

God was putting His foot down. He did not want angels to mate with humans.

Another way to interpret this passage is as follows...

"My Spirit will not remain in man forever, for he is corrupt..."

God could have been stating the fact that he was going to flood the earth in 120 years from that time. He foresaw these events, and he did not want divinity mixing with mortal. This scripture could be prophecy of the Flood.

Apart from Jesus did anyone else ascend to heaven?

(a)  No (John 3:13)

(b )  Yes. “And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven” (2 Kings 2:11)

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These two scriptures are simply misunderstood...

In John 3:13, Jesus said "No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven-the Son of Man."

The keyword here is "came."

Jesus is basically saying "No one else can speak of of heaven through first hand knowledge, but I can, hence I came from heaven."

Nobody, but Jesus came from heaven to speak the word of God.

Who was high priest when David went into the house of God and ate the consecrated bread?

(a)  Abiathar (Mark 2:26)

(b )  Ahimelech, the father of Abiathar (I Samuel 1:1; 22:20)

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This is somewhat relative to the above answer on the names.

Again, you must read the scripture...

"In the days of Abiathar the high priest, he entered the house of God and ate the consecrated bread, which is lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to his companions." (Mark 2:26)

Ahimelech was the high priest "in the days of Abiathar."

Ahimelech went into the house of God.

Was Jesus’ body wrapped in spices before burial in accordance with Jewish burial customs?

(a)  Yes and his female disciples witnessed his burial (John 19:39-40)

(b )  No. Jesus was simply wrapped in a linen shroud. Then the women bought and prepared spices “so that they may go and anoint him [Jesus)” (Mark 16: 1)

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Again, a weak attempt.

In Mark 16:1 it says nothing about "Jesus being simply wrapped in a linen shroud."

Just because it did not mentioned spices in John 19:39-40, does not mean they were not used. It is talking about two different groups of people and what they did to prepare the body of Christ for burial.

When did the women buy the spices?

(a)  After “the Sabbath was past” (Mark 16:1)

(b )  Before the Sabbath. The women “prepared spices and ointments.” Then, “on the Sabbath they rested according to the commandment” (Luke 23:55 to 24:1)

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Simple.

There are two different groups of women.

At what time of day did the women visit the tomb?

(a)  “Toward the dawn” (Matthew 28: 1)

(b )  “When the sun had risen” (Mark 16:2)

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This is pretty weak too.

"Toward the Dawn" and "When the sun had risen" can mean the same thing.

What was the purpose for which the women went to the tomb?

(a)  To anoint Jesus’ body with spices (Mark 16: 1; Luke 23:55 to 24: 1)

(b )  To see the tomb. Nothing about spices here (Matthew 28: 1)

©  For no specified reason. In this gospel the wrapping with spices had been done before the Sabbath (John 20: 1)

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Again, we have two different groups of women.

Just because in Mattew 28:1 it doesn't mention spices doesn't mean they werent put there in Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:55 to 24:1.

A large stone was placed at the entrance of the tomb. Where was the stone when the women arrived?

(a)  They saw that the stone was “Rolled back” (Mark 16:4) They found the stone “rolled away from the tomb” (Luke 24:2) They saw that “the stone had been taken away from the tomb” (John 20:1)

(b )  As the women approached, an angel descended from heaven, rolled away the stone, and conversed with the women. Matthew made the women witness the spectacular rolling away of the stone (Matthew 28:1-6)

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In Matthew, the woman related the earthquake to the angel.

"There was a violent earthquake, for an angel of the Lord came down from heaven and, going into the tomb, rolled back the stone and sat on it." (Matt 28:2)

So, the earthquake happend, and the angel helped.

All four scriptures are read to get the full meaning of the event. In no way do they contradict each other.

Did anyone tell the women what happened to Jesus’ body?

(a)  Yes. “A young man in a white robe” (Mark 16:5). “Two men ... in dazzling apparel” later described as angels (Luke 24:4 and 24:23). An angel - the one who rolled back the stone (Matthew 16:2). In each case the women were told that Jesus had risen from the dead (Matthew 28:7; Mark 16:6; Luke 24:5 footnote)

(b ) No. Mary met no one and returned saying, “They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid him” (John 20:2)

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Mary Magdelene ran away when she saw the tomb open. The other group of women stayed and saw the events that took place thereafter.

Keep in mind there were two groups of women.

When did Mary Magdelene first meet the resurrected Jesus? And how did she react?

(a)  Mary and the other women met Jesus on their way back from their first and only visit to the tomb. They took hold of his feet and worshipped him (Matthew 28:9)

(b )  On her second visit to the tomb Mary met Jesus just outside the tomb. When she saw Jesus she did not recognize him. She mistook him for the gardener. She still thinks that Jesus’ body is laid to rest somewhere and she demands to know where. But when Jesus said her name she at once recognized him and called him “Teacher.” Jesus said to her, “Do not hold me...” (John 20:11 to 17)

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There is a confusion in "Mary's."

Keep in mind there were two groups of women. There was a "Mary" in each group.

Mary Magdelene ran when she saw the tomb open. The other Mary stayed.

Why else would it say Mary worshipped His feet, and the other it sayed she did not recognize him? Simple, two different Mary's.

What was Jesus’ instruction for his disciples?

(a)  “Tell my brethren to go to Galilee, and there they will see me” (Matthew 2 8: 10) 

(b )  “Go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God” (John 20:17)

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These scriptures compliment each other.

They are at two different times in the day.

When did the disciples return to Galilee?

(a)  Immediately, because when they saw Jesus in Galilee “some doubted” (Matthew 28:17). This period of uncertainty should not persist

(b )  After at least 40 days. That evening the disciples were still in Jerusalem (Luke 24:3 3). Jesus appeared to them there and told them, stay in the city until you are clothed with power from on high” (Luke 24:49). He was appearing to them “during forty days” (Acts 1:3), and “charged them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise ... “(Acts 1:4)

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It never says they went "immediately" in Matthew 28:17.

"When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted." (Matt 28:17)

To whom did the Midianites sell Joseph?

(a)  “To the Ishmaelites” (Genesis 37:28)

(b )  “To Potiphar, an officer of Pharaoh” (Genesis 37:36)

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The Midianites and Ishmealites are interchangeable. They were both traveling merchants of the same group.

This group sold him to Potiphar.

Who brought Joseph to Egypt?

(a)  The Ishmaelites bought Joseph and then “took Joseph to Egypt” (Genesis 37:28)

(b )  “The Midianites had sold him in Egypt” (Genesis 37:36)

©  Joseph said to his brothers “I am your brother, Joseph, whom you sold into Egypt” (Genesis 45:4)

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Again, this is much like the previous question. The Ishmaelites and the Midianites are the same group of merchants.

Does God change his mind?

(a)  Yes. “The word of the Lord came to Samuel: “I repent that I have made Saul King...” (I Samuel 15:10 to 11)

(b )  No. God “will not lie or repent; for he is not a man, that he should repent” (I Samuel 15:29)

©  Yes. “And the Lord repented that he had made Saul King over Israel” (I Samuel 15:35). Notice that the above three quotes are all from the same chapter of the same book! In addition, the Bible shows that God repented on several other occasions:

i. “The Lord was sorry that he made man” (Genesis 6:6)

“I am sorry that I have made them” (Genesis 6:7)

ii. “And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do to his people” (Exodus 32:14).

iii. (Lots of other such references).

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This is just a big misunderstanding of God in general.

In 1Samuel 15:10-11 it says..

"Then the word of the Lord came to Samuel: I am grieved that I had made Saul king, because he has turned away from me and has not carried out my instructions."

It does not say "repent." God knew back in Genesis that Saul would be king, he did not "repent" this action, because God knew that David would be the successor of the throne. God knew Saul would do this, and He knew that the throne would be turned over to David, from the tribe of Judah. Had he "repentend" this action, David would not have been on the throne.

Just because God was grieved doesn't mean he didn't wish it had happend

As far as Exodus 32:14

"Then the lord relented and did not bring his people the disaster he had threatened"

Notice the word "relented." It does not say "repented."

God didn't "repent" he "relented" the disaster he had threatened.

Again in Samuel 15:35...

"Until the day Samuel died, he did not go to see Saul again, though Samuel morned for him. And the Lord was grieved that he had made Saul king of Israel."

Again, we see that God was sad of the actions Saul did, but he knew it was necessary.

The Bible says that for each miracle Moses and Aaron demonstrated the magicians did the same by their secret arts. Then comes the following feat:

(a)  Moses and Aaron converted all the available water into blood (Exodus 7:20-21)

(b )  The magicians did the same (Exodus 7:22). This is impossible, since there would have been no water left to convert into blood.

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First of all, In Exodus 7:20-21, Moses and Aaron struck only the water of the Nile.

In Exodus 7:24 is said the Egyptians dug along the Nile to get drinking water, because they could not drink the water of the river.

The magicians could have done the same thing, hence there was water elsewhere other than the Nile.

Who killed Goliath?

(a)  David (I Samuel 17:23, 50)

(b )  Elhanan (2 Samuel 21:19)

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This is referring to Goliaths brother. This Goliath is of Gittite. David killed Goliath of Gath. There was a different name here used in the septaungit, the reason for the name Goliath that was killed by Elhanan was used to show resemblance to the other.

Who killed Saul?

(a)  “Saul took his own sword and fell upon it.... Thus Saul died... (I Samuel 31:4-6)

(b )  An Amalekite slew him (2 Samuel 1:1- 16)

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This would seem as a contradiction, but its not. Its telling the story of how Amalekite wanted credit for killing him, whereas Saul did in fact take his life with his own sword.

[P4P3R T1G3R2]

Wow,

Nicely done Amalgamut,see they don't care for answers, hey just enjoy throwing simple misconceptions and calling it contradictions.

[Amalgamut]

Wow,

Nicely done Amalgamut,see they don't care for answers, hey just enjoy throwing simple misconceptions and calling it contradictions.  

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Indeed, some people will not even allow themselves to read some of these things.

They will throw each of my answers out before they get past the first line.

[zandore]

Wow,

Nicely done Amalgamut,see they don't care for answers, hey just enjoy throwing simple misconceptions and calling it contradictions.  

604348[/snapback]

Indeed, some people will not even allow themselves to read some of these things.

They will throw each of my answers out before they get past the first line.

604381[/snapback]

Don't think so.

Lets look at the facts:

Who incited David to count the fighting men of Israel?

(a) God did (2 Samuel 24: 1)

(b ) Satan did (I Chronicles 2 1:1)

No contradiction here...

This is what they call a "parallel scripture" can you say "parallel?"

Satan incited the men....

And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah.

And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel.

Can you say CONTRADICTIONS? I will let any one that wants to look for them selves to see the contradictions in the Bible. I will not try to mis inform them like you are trying to do.

[Jodie.Lynne]

Now, I'm not too concerned over discrepencies over numbers (2000 vs 2012, etc), but some of your explanations are a little bit hinky.

Being 'at the point of death' means just that- between life & death.

'Dead' means being beyond life. no longer breathing, etc. The two are NOT interchangable phrases.

Your explanation of "on the river jordan" and being on the 'sea of galilee' is also somewhat vague. If I told you that an incident happened in NY harbor, then later told you it happened on the Hudson near Albany, you are talking a distance of almost 200 miles. Which one is it?

I'll have more as I wade through your massive missive.

(And you were complaining about the length of the OP)

[zandore]

Now, I'm not too concerned over discrepencies over numbers (2000 vs 2012, etc), but some of your explanations are a little bit hinky.

Put very mildly.

I'll have more as I wade through your massive missive.

Save your time I went through 4 or 5 of them and he was wrong.

[Amalgamut]

Wow,

Nicely done Amalgamut,see they don't care for answers, hey just enjoy throwing simple misconceptions and calling it contradictions.  

604348[/snapback]

Indeed, some people will not even allow themselves to read some of these things.

They will throw each of my answers out before they get past the first line.

604381[/snapback]

Don't think so.

Lets look at the facts:

Who incited David to count the fighting men of Israel?

(a) God did (2 Samuel 24: 1)

(b ) Satan did (I Chronicles 2 1:1)

No contradiction here...

This is what they call a "parallel scripture" can you say "parallel?"

Satan incited the men....

And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah.

And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel.

Can you say CONTRADICTIONS? I will let any one that wants to look for them selves to see the contradictions in the Bible. I will not try to mis inform them like you are trying to do.

604389[/snapback]

You must have missed my point.

God allowed Satan to do this. He wanted to show them that strengh is not in a number of an army.

[Amalgamut]

Now, I'm not too concerned over discrepencies over numbers (2000 vs 2012, etc), but some of your explanations are a little bit hinky.

Being 'at the point of death' means just that- between life & death.

'Dead' means being beyond life.  no longer breathing, etc.  The two are NOT interchangable phrases.

Your explanation of "on the river jordan" and being on the 'sea of galilee' is also somewhat vague.  If I told you that an incident happened in NY harbor, then later told you it happened on the Hudson near Albany, you are talking a distance of almost 200 miles.  Which one is it?

I'll have more as I wade through your massive missive.

(And you were complaining about the length of the OP)

604394[/snapback]

I admit, some answers are a bit short. I was somewhat in a hurry. But keep reading, my answers get better as you read.

As far as "on the river jordan" and being on "the sea of galiliee" the river Jodan goes into the sea. There could be inches in saying " I was on the river, or I was on the sea." Regardless, the scriptures have the same meaning, as told by different authors. And are in no way contradictory. Most scriptures compliment each other.

Edited May 4, 2005 by Amalgamut